Is that fair?

[Rich Ives]

Originally Posted by dash_riprock

I believe the rule says: "If the batter is hit by his own batted ball when he is anywhere near the batter's box, it shall be ruled a foul ball, and the call shall be sold strongly."

The "foot completely out of the box" stuff is a different rule. It applies only at the moment the bat hits the ball.

The new rule in the memo floating around says (added text in the rule is in blue):

6.05

(g) His fair ball touches him before touching a fielder. If the batter is in a legal position in the batter’s box, see Rule 6.03, and, in the umpire’s judgment, there was no intention to interfere with the course of the ball, a batted ball that strikes the batter or his bat shall be ruled a foul ball;

[dash_riprock]

Originally Posted by Rich Ives

The new rule in the memo floating around says (added text in the rule is in blue):

6.05

(g) His fair ball touches him before touching a fielder. If the batter is in a legal position in the batter’s box, see Rule 6.03, and, in the umpire’s judgment, there was no intention to interfere with the course of the ball, a batted ball that strikes the batter or his bat shall be ruled a foul ball;

That doesn't make any sense. 6.03 defines the batter's initial position in the box (both feet within the lines). The rule is more lenient when he contacts the ball with the bat (no foot can be on the ground completely out of the box). This means the batter can hit the ball while legally in the box, be hit by the ball and be called out for being hit by a fair ball while out of the box.

I like my version better.

[Rich Ives]

Originally Posted by dash_riprock

That doesn't make any sense. 6.03 defines the batter's initial position in the box (both feet within the lines). The rule is more lenient when he contacts the ball with the bat (no foot can be on the ground completely out of the box). This means the batter can hit the ball while legally in the box, be hit by the ball and be called out for being hit by a fair ball while out of the box.

I like my version better.

I don't see a problem. The new rule says if the batter is in a LEGAL position, NOT "initial" position, when hit it's foul.

I think he's is legally in the box UNTIL one foor touches the ground completely outsde the batter's box - because he can legally hit the ball up to that point.

[dash_riprock]

Originally Posted by Rich Ives

I don't see a problem. The new rule says if the batter is in a LEGAL position, NOT "initial" position, when hit it's foul.

I think he's is legally in the box UNTIL one foor touches the ground completely outsde the batter's box - because he can legally hit the ball up to that point.

The rule you posted referenced 6.03 for the batter's "legal position" in the box.

[Rich Ives]

Originally Posted by dash_riprock

The rule you posted referenced 6.03 for the batter's "legal position" in the box.

And when does it cease being legal??

The only "guidance" we have is that when he hits the ball with one or both feen on the ground entirely out of the box it's illegally hit.

So up until then, he must be legally in the box.

[dash_riprock]

Originally Posted by Rich Ives

And when does it cease being legal??

According to 6.03, when both feet are not within the lines of the box.

The only "guidance" we have is that when he hits the ball with one or both feet on the ground entirely out of the box it's illegally hit.

That "guidance" is for when the batter hits the ball, not when the batted ball hits him. The new rule defines legal position when he is hit with the ball (6.03). As written, according to the new rule, if the batter is hit by a batted ball and both feet are not within the lines of the box, he is out.

I am sure that is not what they meant, but that is what they wrote.

[Rich Ives]

Originally Posted by dash_riprock

According to 6.03, when both feet are not within the lines of the box.

So I can have one foot out of the box and be legal?

[mbyron]

Originally Posted by dash_riprock

According to 6.03, when both feet are not within the lines of the box.

As Rich's question suggests, this expression is ambiguous between:
a. it's not the case that both feet are within the lines, i.e., one or both feet are outside the box, or
b. both feet are outside the box.

I'm confident that you mean (a).

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by Rich Ives

The new rule in the memo floating around says (added text in the rule is in blue):

6.05

(g) His fair ball touches him before touching a fielder. If the batter is in a legal position in the batter’s box, see Rule 6.03, and, in the umpire’s judgment, there was no intention to interfere with the course of the ball, a batted ball that strikes the batter or his bat shall be ruled a foul ball;

I think the same rules change has an interp (or something) that if the batter has one foot on the ground outside the batters box when he's hit (and assuming the ball is over fair terrotory when it hits him), the batter is out.

There has been discussion in the past whther one foot or two feet were required to be out of the box before the batter could be out.