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bsaucer,
Yes. Quote:
JM
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Finally, be courteous, impartial and firm, and so compel respect from all. |
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Ditto to what JM said. |
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By (a literal reading of the) rule, the batter would be out if he's hit by a fair ball in fair territory. It wouldn't matter that one foot (the foot not hit by the ball) was in foul territory. By interp, it's foul if it hits the batter while the batter is still in the box. It's a common question for newer umpires. |
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As Bob said, it's by interpretation and tradition that we call a foul when a batter is hit while in the box, regardless of where in the box. |
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Unless the batter is hit with his fair ball while he has one foot on the ground completely out of the batter's box. The new rules will reflect this currently enforced interpretation.
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If he's hit with his foot completely out of the batter's box, he's not in the batter's box.
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I believe the rule says: "If the batter is hit by his own batted ball when he is anywhere near the batter's box, it shall be ruled a foul ball, and the call shall be sold strongly."
The "foot completely out of the box" stuff is a different rule. It applies only at the moment the bat hits the ball. |
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6.05 (g) His fair ball touches him before touching a fielder. If the batter is in a legal position in the batter’s box, see Rule 6.03, and, in the umpire’s judgment, there was no intention to interfere with the course of the ball, a batted ball that strikes the batter or his bat shall be ruled a foul ball;
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Rich Ives Different does not equate to wrong |
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I like my version better. |
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There has been discussion in the past whther one foot or two feet were required to be out of the box before the batter could be out. |
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Or is this another case where my chain is being yanked? |
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