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I believe the rule says: "If the batter is hit by his own batted ball when he is anywhere near the batter's box, it shall be ruled a foul ball, and the call shall be sold strongly."
The "foot completely out of the box" stuff is a different rule. It applies only at the moment the bat hits the ball. |
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6.05 (g) His fair ball touches him before touching a fielder. If the batter is in a legal position in the batter’s box, see Rule 6.03, and, in the umpire’s judgment, there was no intention to interfere with the course of the ball, a batted ball that strikes the batter or his bat shall be ruled a foul ball;
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Rich Ives Different does not equate to wrong |
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I like my version better. |
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I think he's is legally in the box UNTIL one foor touches the ground completely outsde the batter's box - because he can legally hit the ball up to that point.
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Rich Ives Different does not equate to wrong |
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The only "guidance" we have is that when he hits the ball with one or both feen on the ground entirely out of the box it's illegally hit. So up until then, he must be legally in the box.
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Rich Ives Different does not equate to wrong |
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According to 6.03, when both feet are not within the lines of the box.
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I am sure that is not what they meant, but that is what they wrote. |
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There has been discussion in the past whther one foot or two feet were required to be out of the box before the batter could be out. |
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Or is this another case where my chain is being yanked? |
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FED 7-2-1f: A strike is charged to the batter when: a batted ball contacts the batter in the batter's box (foul ball).
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Right: the FED rule expresses explicitly and is based on the (unwritten) OBR interp.
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Cheers, mb |
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