Quote:
Originally Posted by bob jenkins
I don't follow.
By (a literal reading of the) rule, the batter would be out if he's hit by a fair ball in fair territory. It wouldn't matter that one foot (the foot not hit by the ball) was in foul territory.
By interp, it's foul if it hits the batter while the batter is still in the box. It's a common question for newer umpires.
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In Fed, it is plainly written, though. OBR, there's nothing to defend the "in the box" rule.