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Is that fair?
Is any portion of the batter's box in fair territory? Assuming so, if the batter stands with one foot in the fair portion of the box, and his batted ball hits this foot, what is the ruling?
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bsaucer,
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JM |
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Ditto to what JM said. |
Unless the batter is Tiny Tim, some part of him is going to be in foul territory and that's all it takes to make a ball foul.
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By (a literal reading of the) rule, the batter would be out if he's hit by a fair ball in fair territory. It wouldn't matter that one foot (the foot not hit by the ball) was in foul territory. By interp, it's foul if it hits the batter while the batter is still in the box. It's a common question for newer umpires. |
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As Bob said, it's by interpretation and tradition that we call a foul when a batter is hit while in the box, regardless of where in the box. |
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I believe the rule says: "If the batter is hit by his own batted ball when he is anywhere near the batter's box, it shall be ruled a foul ball, and the call shall be sold strongly."
The "foot completely out of the box" stuff is a different rule. It applies only at the moment the bat hits the ball. |
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6.05 (g) His fair ball touches him before touching a fielder. If the batter is in a legal position in the batter’s box, see Rule 6.03, and, in the umpire’s judgment, there was no intention to interfere with the course of the ball, a batted ball that strikes the batter or his bat shall be ruled a foul ball; |
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I like my version better. |
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There has been discussion in the past whther one foot or two feet were required to be out of the box before the batter could be out. |
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Or is this another case where my chain is being yanked? |
It was a chain yank. It is also a very common (unwritten) interp.
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