Does the run score?

[ozzy6900]

Originally Posted by johnnyg08

Or I could ask the question on here since that is the purpose. I'm aware of what I can look up...thanks

The purpose of this board is to communicate with fellow umpires. This is not a rules verification board! If someone is kind enough to answer your rules question, you say "Thank You" and be on your way. If one of more knowledge than you tells you "you can look this up......", you say "Thank You" and be on your way. That is what respect for each other is about. If you need to learn that, you don't belong here!

JMHO

[kylejt]

Originally Posted by ozzy6900

The purpose of this board is to communicate with fellow umpires. This is not a rules verification board! If someone is kind enough to answer your rules question, you say "Thank You" and be on your way. If one of more knowledge than you tells you "you can look this up......", you say "Thank You" and be on your way. That is what respect for each other is about. If you need to learn that, you don't belong here!

JMHO

Are you naturally this grouchy, or is it something you've worked on over time? Is this something I should look forward to? Should I get a mentor?

[greymule]

In the OP, the run of course does not score.

However:

R3, R1, 2 outs. Batter singles down the 3B line. R3 scores, R1 stops at 2B. The ball comes in to the mound. As F1 awaits the next batter, R2 now retreats toward 1B (perhaps thinking the ball was foul, perhaps to retrieve his hat, wrongly assuming that time had been called), and F1 throws to F4 for the reinstated force.

This third out seems to me to be a new play, occurring after the continuing action of the original play. I would not nullify the run.

I know it's so unlikely that it's probably not addressed anywhere, but in 39 years I did see it happen once (though I admit it was in softball).

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by greymule

In the OP, the run of course does not score.

However:

R3, R1, 2 outs. Batter singles down the 3B line. R3 scores, R1 stops at 2B. The ball comes in to the mound. As F1 awaits the next batter, R2 now retreats toward 1B (perhaps thinking the ball was foul, perhaps to retrieve his hat, wrongly assuming that time had been called), and F1 throws to F4 for the reinstated force.

This third out seems to me to be a new play, occurring after the continuing action of the original play. I would not nullify the run.

I know it's so unlikely that it's probably not addressed anywhere, but in 39 years I did see it happen once (though I admit it was in softball).

If it's a "reinstated force" then the run doesn't count. If it's not, then the run does count.

While the timing may determine which it is, there's no time frame when it's both a "reinstated force" and a timing play (to allow the run to score).

[greymule]

I don't understand. Why isn't it a reinstated force regardless of the timing? Even after a pitch, if R2 retreats toward 1B (and there's a runner occupying 1B), isn't the force reinstated? Or has that somehow become a tag play because the batter did not become a runner on that play?