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Old Sun May 03, 2009, 08:51am
mbyron mbyron is offline
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Join Date: Jul 2004
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Quote:
Originally Posted by starman View Post
I know that the run would not count if it was a straight forward double play. However, instinctively I think that since R1 reached second the run should count. I am having trouble finding anything in the MLB rule book to clarify this.
Stop looking. Your "instincts" or intuitions are incorrect. R1 merely reaching 2B does not change the play: if the 3rd out is a force play, no run can score (4.09). As the others have posted, the force was reinstated by the baserunning error.
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mb
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