Passing ball to self

[Raymond]

Originally Posted by BktBallRef

That rule simply does not apply to the original post.

This rule covers a player who jumps and returns to the floor before he releases the ball.

The original play had the player throwing the ball, running and touching the ball before it hit the floor. That's a completely different scenario.

I know what the OP asked. In the literal sense it means A1 lifted his pivot and returned it to the floor before passing or shooting the ball, which is exactly what 4-44-3a says. 4-44-3b is what addresses a player who jumps. Everyone is telling Wade it's an illegal dribble but no one has posted a rule showing it to be an illegal dribble. 4-44-1 most definitely doesn't tell anybody it's an illegal dribble nor does any part of 9-5.

Struckoff (sp??) may be an idiot but complaining about her doesn't help as far as citing a current rule or case play for this scenario.

[BktBallRef]

Originally Posted by MiamiWadeCounty

A1 is stationary. A1 tosses ball up and catches it, while never lifting pivot. Legal?

What rule would A1 violate if A1 tosses the ball up and then runs to catch it before the ball touches the floor? I know this case is illegal, but I do not know where in the rules book says that it's illegal. Some people say that it's traveling. Others say that it's an illegal dribble.

jar gave you the appropriate case play but the case play is wrong. By rule, it's an illegal dribble. Traveling is moving the pivot foot outside prescribed limits while HOLDING the ball. A1 isn't holding the ball when he lifts his pivot.

The correct ruling was listed for years. Then, a few seasons ago, some Einstein changed the ruling.

[MiamiWadeCounty]

Originally Posted by BktBallRef

jar gave you the appropriate case play but the case play is wrong. By rule, it's an illegal dribble. Traveling is moving the pivot foot outside prescribed limits while HOLDING the ball. A1 isn't holding the ball when he lifts his pivot.

If the case play is wrong, and if that supposedly an illegal dribble, then shouldn't it be an illegal dribble in my first scenario? In my first scenario, A1 ends his dribble, throws the ball straight up and then catches it before it touches the floor. Shouldn't that be an illegal dribble whether A1 took several steps or not?

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by MiamiWadeCounty

If the case play is wrong, and if that supposedly an illegal dribble, then shouldn't it be an illegal dribble in my first scenario? In my first scenario, A1 ends his dribble, throws the ball straight up and then catches it before it touches the floor. Shouldn't that be an illegal dribble whether A1 took several steps or not?

Of course not.

[MiamiWadeCounty]

Originally Posted by BktBallRef

jar gave you the appropriate case play but the case play is wrong. By rule, it's an illegal dribble. Traveling is moving the pivot foot outside prescribed limits while HOLDING the ball. A1 isn't holding the ball when he lifts his pivot.

The correct ruling was listed for years. Then, a few seasons ago, some Einstein changed the ruling.

Can you tell me why it should be an illegal dribble and not traveling? You said by rule, but which rule?

[APG]

Originally Posted by MiamiWadeCounty

Can you tell me why it should be an illegal dribble and not traveling? You said by rule, but which rule?

If you consider the toss of the ball as the start of the dribble, then the player has violated by not permitting the ball to strike the floor before the ball is touched again with the hand(s) as is required by 4-15-2.

In reality, no coach is going to get on your case if you call an illegal dribble/travel.

[MiamiWadeCounty]

Originally Posted by AllPurposeGamer

If you consider the toss of the ball as the start of the dribble, then the player has violated by not permitting the ball to strike the floor before the ball is touched again with the hand(s) as is required by 4-15-2.

The player has violated even if he never moved his pivot foot?

[BktBallRef]

Originally Posted by MiamiWadeCounty

The player has violated even if he never moved his pivot foot?

No. He has violated if he tosses the ball, runs and touches it before it hits the floor. The toss is considered the start of a dribble.

[APG]

Originally Posted by MiamiWadeCounty

The player has violated even if he never moved his pivot foot?

No, we've already established that that scenario is legal...a stationary player to toss and catch the ball without moving the pivot foot.

[BktBallRef]

Originally Posted by MiamiWadeCounty

Can you tell me why it should be an illegal dribble and not traveling? You said by rule, but which rule?

4-44-1. With one exception, you have to be holding the ball to travel.

[Nevadaref]

Originally Posted by BktBallRef

jar gave you the appropriate case play but the case play is wrong. By rule, it's an illegal dribble. Traveling is moving the pivot foot outside prescribed limits while HOLDING the ball. A1 isn't holding the ball when he lifts his pivot.

The correct ruling was listed for years. Then, a few seasons ago, some Einstein changed the ruling.

Very true, and hopefully now that she has moved on from the NFHS, we can get this silly change reversed and have it once again deemed an illegal dribble.