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Quote:
If the ball did recross the plane then B1 would be in violation? ART. 10. . . The opponent(s) of the thrower shall not have any part of his/her person through the inbounds side of the throw-in boundary-line plane until the ball has been released on a throw-in pass. NOTE: The thrower may penetrate the plane provided he/she does not touch the inbounds area before the ball is released on the throw-in pass. The opponent in this situation may legally touch or grasp the ball. A1 holds the ball across the plane, true, however what constitutes the legality of B1 being able to grab the ball causing the "jump ball"? Also why didn't A1 just release the ball as soon as B1 grabbed it? In this sitch, there are many what ifs or whys.
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