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Old Mon Apr 28, 2014, 02:46pm
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Illegal pitch? Ball awarded?

FED rules. Bases empty. Full count on the batter. Pitcher begins his wind-up catches his spikes on the rubber during his rocker step and stops. He does not deliver to the batter.

Illegal pitch? Ball four?

Typically, nobody calls this an illegal pitch with no runners on base. I don't. But, I'm wondering if the FED powers-that-be expect us to call this an "illegal pitch" and award the batter a ball.

Opinions?
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Old Mon Apr 28, 2014, 03:04pm
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By rule, an IP and a ball in FED.
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Old Mon Apr 28, 2014, 03:59pm
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Lol!

Just for historical note:

When Brad Rumble was the Editor of the Rule book (Brad's Book) . . . this exactly violation was called a "Balk" for 15 years.

Tee
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Old Mon Apr 28, 2014, 04:24pm
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Originally Posted by bob jenkins View Post
By rule, an IP and a ball in FED.
rule citation please.
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Old Mon Apr 28, 2014, 04:45pm
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Originally Posted by BEAREF View Post
rule citation please.
6-1-2 ...... "'after he starts his movement to pitch, he must continue the movement without interruption or alteration...."

Penalty (ART. 1,2,3):
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Old Tue Apr 29, 2014, 10:47am
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Originally Posted by asdf View Post
6-1-2 ...... "'after he starts his movement to pitch, he must continue the movement without interruption or alteration...."

Penalty (ART. 1,2,3):
Now read Rule 6-1-4 “…..Each legal pitch shall be declared by the umpire as a strike, ball, fair or foul hit or dead ball. A pitch dropped during delivery and which crosses a foul line shall be called a ball. Otherwise, it will be called a no pitch….”

Since there was not a thrown ball that crossed a foul line shouldn't it be called a no pitch?

This is what a clinician from our state told me when I asked him the question. "No pitch. It can’t be a ball since the pitch (that didn’t happen) didn’t cross a foul line. This happens quite frequently (relatively speaking) at the Major League level. No big deal. Just start over. Who was harmed by it? Nobody…"
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Old Tue Apr 29, 2014, 11:08am
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Originally Posted by BEAREF View Post
Now read Rule 6-1-4 “…..Each legal pitch shall be declared by the umpire as a strike, ball, fair or foul hit or dead ball. A pitch dropped during delivery and which crosses a foul line shall be called a ball. Otherwise, it will be called a no pitch….”

Since there was not a thrown ball that crossed a foul line shouldn't it be called a no pitch?

This is what a clinician from our state told me when I asked him the question. "No pitch. It can’t be a ball since the pitch (that didn’t happen) didn’t cross a foul line. This happens quite frequently (relatively speaking) at the Major League level. No big deal. Just start over. Who was harmed by it? Nobody…"
I think in the Definition of a pitch NFHS, it states that when a IP is made, "it is not considered a pitch" because the ball became dead at the time of the infraction. The Penalty is a ball or balk (whatever the case may be). But it is definitely NOT a Pitch.
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Old Tue Apr 29, 2014, 11:53am
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The reason I asked the question (OP), is because I have always known, technically, that the batter is awarded a ball (the penalty for an illegal pitch with no runners on base) but no umpire in our area makes this call; nor do the coaches expect it to be made. I guess it's kind of a regional thing. I was wondering if that was also the case in other parts of the country.
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Old Tue Apr 29, 2014, 07:09pm
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Originally Posted by jicecone View Post
I think in the Definition of a pitch NFHS, it states that when a IP is made, "it is not considered a pitch" because the ball became dead at the time of the infraction. The Penalty is a ball or balk (whatever the case may be). But it is definitely NOT a Pitch.
You're right. An illegal pitch is an act by the pitcher which causes a ball to be added to the count (no runners). I'm glad no coach around here knows this. I don't call it either.

Last edited by dash_riprock; Tue Apr 29, 2014 at 07:12pm.
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Old Tue Apr 29, 2014, 07:19pm
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Originally Posted by dash_riprock View Post
I'm glad no coach around here knows this. I don't call it either.
So when you encounter one that does, do you tell him that you don't call it?
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Old Tue Apr 29, 2014, 07:47pm
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Here in South-West Ohio, I've called this about 3 time in 25 yrs of high school umpiring.
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Old Tue Apr 29, 2014, 08:12pm
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Originally Posted by charliej47 View Post
Here in South-West Ohio, I've called this about 3 time in 25 yrs of high school umpiring.
Is that because in 25 years, only 3 times has the pitcher, with no runners on base, aborted his delivery for one reason or another? Or, has it actually happened numerous times, but you only chose to invoke the rule 3 times?

I'd have to say that this happens to me, at a minimum, once per year. Sometimes more frequently. My experience is that it's not all that rare.
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Old Tue Apr 29, 2014, 08:24pm
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I'm saying that there are a lot of reasons for an aborted pitch, but I've only seen it three times where it was callable.

I've seen times when the pitcher falls or gets to dance with bees or something like that. I've seen dust swirls that cause the pitcher to stop. I've always treated these instances as "do-overs".
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Old Wed Apr 30, 2014, 07:14am
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Originally Posted by charliej47 View Post
Here in South-West Ohio, I've called this about 3 time in 25 yrs of high school umpiring.
wow. I've seen it once in the past 20 years. I did call it. Both sides murmured that it was the right call.
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Old Wed Apr 30, 2014, 07:44am
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If all the participants are willing to accept a "do-over" as the correct result, who am I to say differently?
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