Illegal pitch? Ball awarded?

[David Emerling]

Originally Posted by dash_riprock

Here's one for you: Championship game, bottom of the last, HT down one, bases loaded, two out. 90mph fastball gets away and tails in at the batter's head. He spins out of the box trying to save his life, and you are 100% certain one foot is on the ground entirely out of the box when the ball hits his bat. What mechanic are you using to end the game on an illegally batted ball?

And, miraculously, the ball goes into fair territory and amounts to a perfect bunt. Everybody is safe. The tying run scores. Now what? Now who has been disadvantaged?

[dash_riprock]

Originally Posted by David Emerling

And, miraculously, the ball goes into fair territory and amounts to a perfect bunt. Everybody is safe. The tying run scores. Now what? Now who has been disadvantaged?

So your call is not based on the rule, but by who is disadvantaged?

[David Emerling]

Originally Posted by dash_riprock

So your call is not based on the rule, but by who is disadvantaged?

In your hypothetical situation, implicit was that you would NOT call this batter out. Am I mistaken?

You seem to suggest that the batter has, somehow, been unfairly deprived of the opportunity to tie the game. You said that the ball hit his bat but you didn't say where the ball went. If you ignore the fact that his foot was completely outside the batter's box and the ball goes fair and the tying run scores - then what?

What's the mechanic for that? It's your question!

Now this thread is off on a tangent of situational ethics. I didn't intend that. Mostly, I was just wondering if there was a regional propensity to not invoke a certain rule. Another rule in our area that is not enforced very strictly is the requirement for the batter to keep one foot in the batter's box. The only time it is invoked is if, by not having his foot in the batter's box, the game is delayed. And, it is usually preceded by a warning.

[umpjim]

Originally Posted by David Emerling

In your hypothetical situation, implicit was that you would NOT call this batter out. Am I mistaken?

You seem to suggest that the batter has, somehow, been unfairly deprived of the opportunity to tie the game. You said that the ball hit his bat but you didn't say where the ball went. If you ignore the fact that his foot was completely outside the batter's box and the ball goes fair and the tying run scores - then what?

What's the mechanic for that? It's your question!

Now this thread is off on a tangent of situational ethics. I didn't intend that. Mostly, I was just wondering if there was a regional propensity to not invoke a certain rule. Another rule in our area that is not enforced very strictly is the requirement for the batter to keep one foot in the batter's box. The only time it is invoked is if, by not having his foot in the batter's box, the game is delayed. And, it is usually preceded by a warning.

Haven't you answered your own question?

[dash_riprock]

Originally Posted by David Emerling

In your hypothetical situation, implicit was that you would NOT call this batter out. Am I mistaken?

No.

You seem to suggest that the batter has, somehow, been unfairly deprived of the opportunity to tie the game.

Yes. Enforcing the rule (which, in this case, would entail countermanding the spirit and intent of the rule) would do just that.

You said that the ball hit his bat but you didn't say where the ball went.

That's because it is irrelevant to the question I asked.

If you ignore the fact that his foot was completely outside the batter's box and the ball goes fair and the tying run scores - then what?

What's the mechanic for that? It's your question!

Uh, point it fair. Then the next batter comes up.

[dash_riprock]

Originally Posted by David Emerling

I was just wondering if there was a regional propensity to not invoke a certain rule.

Sorry, I didn't answer your question.

Around here, yes. The other night I had a pitcher step off with the wrong foot. He was in the windup and there were no runners. He stepped off because the batter wasn't in the box yet. The count remained 0-0.

[charliej47]

Usually if the batter is not in the box, the pitcher cannot pitch unless told to do so. As such, stepping off or dropping his hands or some other action would not be a cause for a penalty.

[dash_riprock]

Originally Posted by charliej47

Usually if the batter is not in the box, the pitcher cannot pitch unless told to do so. As such, stepping off or dropping his hands or some other action would not be a cause for a penalty.

By (FED only) rule this is an illegal pitch and a ball.