Does the run score?

[mick]

Originally Posted by PeteBooth

The only way R3 would be allowed to score is if R3 crossed the plate PRIOR to F1 starting his pitching motion meaning if R3 crossed the plate BEFORE TOP then he would be allowed to score. In reality virtually impossible to accomplish.

I see no difference in this OP then the following.

We have R1 less than 2 outs

R1 has a VERY BIG lead and is stealing on the play. Before the ball even gets to B1 R1 is standing on second base.

B1 K's and the ball gets by F2.

Ruling: Since during the TOP we had R1 and less than 2 outs the batter is out. It doesn't matter that R1 was standing on second base before B1 k'd

The KEY question is this:

Where is the runner at TOP.

For those old timers out there, R3 could have been the late Bob Hayes and not have been able to score BEFORE TOP even bagan.

Pete Booth

Thanks, Pete, and I apologize for being dense.
I have to be missing something.

Are we not still going to let R1 keep 2nd base, but now with one or two outs?
The 1/2-inning continues.
In the OP the game could be over, or tied.