Scoring Question

[AtlUmpSteve]

Originally Posted by Tru_in_Blu

Well, it is very hard to argue scoring protocol against someone referred to as "Stat-Man". But I'll still give it a shot.

"Based on part (1), "to indicate the advance of the batter-runner who takes one or more bases while the fielder who handles the batted ball plays on a preceding runner;" -- I'm scoring this a FC for the batter and a 7-5 putout for Out #3. " Taken literally, this would mean that with a runner on 2B and a ball off the wall in CF that F8 recovers and throws to F2 and "plays on a preceding runner", that the batter would not be credited with a base hit.

Same thing on your #3 point above. Runner on 2B attempts to score on a batted ball hit to the outfield [aka a base hit] but is thrown out at home. No base hit for the batter? Don't think so.

This is one of those situations we had in Business Law I. We [students] always argued that "it wasn't fair", and the Professor always said "but it's the law". No, not that it was foul, necessarily.


Ted

Tru, here's the problem with each of your examples; every one includes a runner that has already safely advanced a base, and then is put out. That, clearly, isn't a fielder's choice.

But, the OP has a runner attempting to advance on the batted ball, that is put out before successfully advancing. At all. It may have been poor baserunning, but the rule quoted above (FC 3) makes this play a fielder's choice.

I hear you; if the runner stayed on 2nd, there is no play, and it's a hit. But the runner didn't stay on 2nd, stupidly attempted to advance, and was put out. The scoring rule makes that a fielder's choice.