Airborne Shooter purposely drops ball

[BillyMac]

Originally Posted by potato

If it was an alleyoop or rebound he probably can do start a dribble.

Not if he's already lifted his pivot foot for a try, or a pass (which is what this thread is all about).

[potato]

Well since the initial post did not state what happened before the player dropped the ball, whether he ended a dribble & jumped or he received the ball while airborne, i just though i took it into consideration on a 2nd case where no pivot has yet been established.

Originally Posted by BillyMac

Not if he's already lifted his pivot foot for a try, or a pass (which is what this thread is all about).

[Raymond]

Originally Posted by potato

Well since the initial post did not state what happened before the player dropped the ball, whether he ended a dribble & jumped or he received the ball while airborne, i just though i took it into consideration on a 2nd case where no pivot has yet been established.

If the player received a pass while airborne there would have been no reason for this discussion.

[potato]

well it could still be a violation if he touched his own pass. but if he dropped the ball & touches it would you see it as a violation or just treat it as a dribble?

[Raymond]

Originally Posted by potato

well it could still be a violation if he touched his own pass. but if he dropped the ball & touches it would you see it as a violation or just treat it as a dribble?

Depends on different things, for example:

1) if he dribbled already
2) did he pick up his pivot foot before releasing the ball

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by potato

well it could still be a violation if he touched his own pass.

No, it wouldn't.

There is no rule about "catching your own pass." there is a rule about moving your pivot foot which is what USUALLY happens. But when it doesn't ...

[Adam]

Originally Posted by potato

well it could still be a violation if he touched his own pass.

Why?