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Old Fri Dec 03, 2010, 08:55am
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Originally Posted by AllPurposeGamer View Post
Wouldn't it be more accurate to say that Team A must be the last to touch the ball while the ball had a frontcourt status?
No, because A need not touch the ball while it has FC status. Think of the pass from BC that hits an official in the FC and rebounds to BC. A never touched the ball while it had FC status, but it's still a violation.
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Old Fri Dec 03, 2010, 09:10am
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Originally Posted by bob jenkins View Post
No, because A need not touch the ball while it has FC status. Think of the pass from BC that hits an official in the FC and rebounds to BC. A never touched the ball while it had FC status, but it's still a violation.
Part of the rule states "last to touch the ball in the FC," but the other article clearly makes bob's play here a violation.

Bottom line, always listen to bob.
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Old Fri Dec 03, 2010, 10:56am
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Originally Posted by bob jenkins View Post
No, because A need not touch the ball while it has FC status. Think of the pass from BC that hits an official in the FC and rebounds to BC. A never touched the ball while it had FC status, but it's still a violation.
Like I said, I think I was just overthinking the wording. You're right...as usual.
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Old Fri Dec 03, 2010, 11:27am
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Originally Posted by AllPurposeGamer View Post
You're right...as usual.
You've got something on your nose...
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