player control?

[mbyron]

Originally Posted by OHBBREF

So because the NFHS doesn't have a ruling on this play, the intent of the rule is different?

Exactly! If NFHS wanted to adopt the same ruling, it would be in the case book, right? So they must mean something else by the rule.

Originally Posted by OHBBREF

So where would this interpretation deviate from that intent?
and If I am so wrong show me then;
What then is the intent of the NFHS rule?

I read the intention right out of the rule: if the leg intentionally strikes the ball, then it's a kick. Holding the ball between the legs does not meet that definition.