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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Mon Jan 26, 2009, 01:27pm
Ref Ump Welsch
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Originally Posted by fullor30 View Post
Not near rule book. Player on floor with ball firmly between legs. Player control?

Also reference # on player control. Thanks
Reading everyone's posts regarding this, I think there's a misunderstanding. This OP isn't clear, but I'm going to guess the question is regarding player control for the purpose of calling timeout. But I'll wait for the OP poster to come back and clarify his post.
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  #2 (permalink)  
Old Mon Jan 26, 2009, 01:29pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Ref Ump Welsch View Post
Reading everyone's posts regarding this, I think there's a misunderstanding. This OP isn't clear, but I'm going to guess the question is regarding player control for the purpose of calling timeout. But I'll wait for the OP poster to come back and clarify his post.
I understood the OP. The player can't call TO because he/she doesn't have PC because he/she has violated.
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  #3 (permalink)  
Old Mon Jan 26, 2009, 01:32pm
Ref Ump Welsch
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Originally Posted by jdw3018 View Post
I understood the OP. The player can't call TO because he/she doesn't have PC because he/she has violated.
Violated how? It isn't an intentional striking of the leg like some suggest. What if he was on the floor and the ball dropped into the legs? That's why I said the original OP isn't clear.
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  #4 (permalink)  
Old Mon Jan 26, 2009, 01:47pm
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Originally Posted by Ref Ump Welsch View Post
Violated how? It isn't an intentional striking of the leg like some suggest. What if he was on the floor and the ball dropped into the legs? That's why I said the original OP isn't clear.
I believe - and have been taught - that holding the ball between the legs is a violation. If the ball just dropped onto the legs, that's neither control nor a violation, same as if the ball landed on a player's back.

The only way a player can have player control is to be legally holding the ball or dribbling.
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  #5 (permalink)  
Old Mon Jan 26, 2009, 01:33pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by jdw3018 View Post
I understood the OP. The player can't call TO because he/she doesn't have PC because he/she has violated.
Sure he can, the ball is now dead and anyone can request a TO.
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  #6 (permalink)  
Old Mon Jan 26, 2009, 01:45pm
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Originally Posted by Snaqwells View Post
Sure he can, the ball is now dead and anyone can request a TO.
Touche.

Last edited by jdw3018; Mon Jan 26, 2009 at 01:48pm.
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  #7 (permalink)  
Old Mon Jan 26, 2009, 04:53pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Ref Ump Welsch View Post
Reading everyone's posts regarding this, I think there's a misunderstanding. This OP isn't clear, but I'm going to guess the question is regarding player control for the purpose of calling timeout. But I'll wait for the OP poster to come back and clarify his post.

Someone asked me to research it. He only asked me if controlling the ball between your legs(watch it Padgett!) constitutes player control.
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  #8 (permalink)  
Old Mon Jan 26, 2009, 04:57pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by fullor30 View Post
Someone asked me to research it. He only asked me if controlling the ball between your legs(watch it Padgett!) constitutes player control.
You need to be specific, because we have imagination. We can come up with allot of interesting stuff which will both amuse and confuse.
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  #9 (permalink)  
Old Mon Jan 26, 2009, 06:21pm
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Originally Posted by AKOFL View Post
You need to be specific, because we have imagination. We can come up with allot of interesting stuff which will both amuse and confuse.
... and bemuse?
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  #10 (permalink)  
Old Mon Jan 26, 2009, 06:44pm
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On another thought

Quote:
Originally Posted by mbyron View Post
... and bemuse?
Lest we forget to diffuse this ruse?
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