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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Tue Jan 10, 2017, 01:34pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by so cal lurker View Post
I'm not sure you're making yourself do anything. The partner, called a foul that happened before the travel. Even assuming that the call was horrifically incorrect, what basis does one official have to reject that call?

(Granted that the partner did not make the correct explanation on why his call should take precedence.)
The basis that the contact happened in OP's area, and the logic for making the call from partner was completely faulty.
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Old Tue Jan 10, 2017, 02:11pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by VaTerp View Post
This is a prime example of why I HATE when people pre-game "if there's a body on the floor we MUST have a whistle." No, we don't. Rule 4-27-2 clearly states otherwise.

Exactly!!!!

Quote:
Originally Posted by jTheUmp View Post
It's actually one of my pregame points... "if a player goes to the floor, we need to know WHY. That doesn't mean we have to have a whistle, but we need to know why she ended up there"

That way if the coach questions it, we can confidently say "she tripped over her own feet" or whatever the case may be. In this case it would be "she ran into a defender who was in a legal position, and the defender did nothing wrong"
I do the same thing.

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Old Tue Jan 10, 2017, 02:12pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by MD Longhorn View Post
The basis that the contact happened in OP's area, and the logic for making the call from partner was completely faulty.
That would still be wrong. As bad as a partner's call might be and regardless of PCA's you still don't have the authority to overrule it.
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