Backcourt Violation?

[BigCat]

Originally Posted by just another ref

What is the point you're trying to make? The location of the player and the status of the ball when he touches it are one and the same.

When A2 touches the ball he is in the BC. The fact that the ball had FC status and simultaneously gained BC status with A2 touch doesn't matter because A2 is unquestionably in the BC when he touches. He cannot be the last to touch in FC because he's physically in the BC.

[just another ref]

Originally Posted by BigCat

When A1 touches the ball he is in the BC. The fact that the ball had FC status and simultaneously gained BC status with A1 touch doesn't matter because A1is unquestionably in the BC when he touches. He cannot be the last to touch in FC because he's physically in the BC.

I think everybody agrees with you on this. (except whoever wrote the infamous interp) A single player CAN do both things, but not at the same time.

[BigCat]

Originally Posted by just another ref

I think everybody agrees with you on this. (except whoever wrote the infamous interp) A single player CAN do both things, but not at the same time.

I think what has been claimed is that because The ball has FC status when A2 touches it he is the last person to touch it in FC before it went to BC. We have said this happens simultaneously so A2 cannot be last to touch it BEFORE it goes BC. That focuses on status of ball.

What I am saying is looking at the wording in rule it could be that the physical location of the player is what matters. The last person to touch ball IN THE FC refers to where the player is located at time of touch. A2 is not physically located in FC so he isn't last to touch it in FC.

The fact that the ball in the air has FC status doesn't matter.