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On the first play by an infielder, the runner is awarded two bases TOP. As others have said, JM and TT are correct...or I at least agree with them. As for my earlier posts, I would've gotten this play correct on the diamond. I had a hard time visualizing the accidental portion until I read further into the thread and as I stated in the other post, I can see the play developing as you describe it as well. As another posted, it really is a HTBT type situation...(for me anyway)
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It's like Deja Vu all over again Last edited by johnnyg08; Mon Aug 23, 2010 at 09:58pm. Reason: wrong screen name in quote |
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My mistake, I forgot to edit that part. I'll fix it.
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It's like Deja Vu all over again |
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Award runner 3B. You are not tipping off the defense or offense. Runner should know he must retreat and touch 2B and 1B. Defense should know to appeal if runner doesn't do so.
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I have nipples, Greg. Can you milk me? |
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I still maintain that to have an out there must have been a play. At either rate, the UIC's ruling of award 2nd is still right out. |
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What will it take to convince you? How about you attend proschool and report back?
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How about a quote from a rule book that refers to catching? Or failing that a logical explanation of how we ended up with an out when no one made a play on the batter-runner.
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If ignorance is bliss, you've gotta be one happy guy. |
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You are mistaken. As I understand your argument, it is that "Well, gosh, that doesn't seem right to ME. That's not how I always thought of it." It's not very persuasive. You clearly don't know what you are talking about, EVEN after you have been shown the unequivocal language from THE authoritative reference. Which is consistent with the treatment of the question in all of the respected interpretation manuals. I mean, if I see an infielder make a diving catch on a low line drive, I might say something like, "That was a great play by that shortstop" - it's just not a "play" within the narrow context of the rule. Because that's not what they wanted the rule to be. The rule is designed to encourage aggressive, even "risky", defensive play after the defense has initially gained control of a batted ball. That's why it's written that way. JM
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Finally, be courteous, impartial and firm, and so compel respect from all. |
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You want to try again with an actual rules reference rather than personal attacks? |
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Do you understand what the MLBUM is? It's the OFFICIAL from the owners of OBR interpretations of the rules. It is gospel. Opinions to the contrary are invalid.
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Rich Ives Different does not equate to wrong |
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I'm a Fed umpire and the MLBUM doesn't apply to my games at all. I'm not convinced that fielding and catching are equivalent. Why don't you try to actual use the rules to change my mine instead of just yelling at me? I've got an open mind but stamping your foot just makes me think you're wrong. |
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Dude!!! WTF are you talking about?!?!? If I had called you a moron, or your argument "retarded", THAT would have been attacking you personally.
I am deeply offended by your scurrilous, slanderous, and baseless accusation! (Sheesh, talk about getting personal.) I just stated the fact that you were mistaken and paraphrased the "argument" you presented to support your erroneous position. Rather concisely and objectively, I thought. Quote:
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1. In order for there to be a "play" as defined for Rule 7.05(g)... 2. Some fielder must have possession of the ball AND 3. Once he has possession of the ball, must perform some other act which the umpire judges to be a legitimate attempt (even if ultimately unsuccessful or aborted) to retire a runner. Therefore, making a legal catch of an in-flight batted ball cannot be a "first play" in the context of 7.05(g) because it does not meet the defined requirements in the official interpretation. Quod Erat Demonstrandum. Also... Quote:
JM
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Finally, be courteous, impartial and firm, and so compel respect from all. Last edited by UmpJM; Mon Aug 23, 2010 at 08:06pm. |
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