Was this an appeal play?

[Welpe]

No other runners, the bases were empty at the time.

[MD Longhorn]

Well ... it's an appeal play. But does it matter to anyone other than you, me, Johnny, and the wall?

[johnnyg08]

I expected to see a safe signal by U1 for passing the base, but no signal, then the out on the appeal...have read about the play many, many times, but haven't seen the appeal executed in that manner before.

[Welpe]

I don't think the U1 called him out for the appeal, I think he called him out because he had F3 tagging the base before the BR, ie a normal play.

[mbyron]

Originally Posted by Welpe

I don't think the U1 called him out for the appeal, I think he called him out because he had F3 tagging the base before the BR, ie a normal play.

It's a missed base appeal. The runner acquired the base before being tagged because he passed it. Since he missed the base, he was liable to be put out on appeal, which F3 accomplished by tagging the base.

[yawetag]

Originally Posted by mbyron

It's a missed base appeal. The runner acquired the base before being tagged because he passed it. Since he missed the base, he was liable to be put out on appeal, which F3 accomplished by tagging the base.

And, the appeal was obvious (i.e., F3's glove didn't land on the base accidentally while trying to make the play).

[Welpe]

Originally Posted by mbyron

It's a missed base appeal. The runner acquired the base before being tagged because he passed it. Since he missed the base, he was liable to be put out on appeal, which F3 accomplished by tagging the base.

I know that it is supposed to be a missed base appeal but I think the U1 simply judged it as a normal "force" play at first.

I was under the impression that with unrelaxed action, the runner had to be tagged. Or is that specific only to plays at the plate?

[johnnyg08]

Originally Posted by Welpe

I know that it is supposed to be a missed base appeal but I think the U1 simply judged it as a normal "force" play at first.

I was under the impression that with unrelaxed action, the runner had to be tagged. Or is that specific only to plays at the plate?

This is one of the reasons why I posted the question...wondering if it turned into a tag play...

[mbyron]

Originally Posted by Welpe

I know that it is supposed to be a missed base appeal but I think the U1 simply judged it as a normal "force" play at first.

I was under the impression that with unrelaxed action, the runner had to be tagged. Or is that specific only to plays at the plate?

It could not have been any kind of force play, since the BR is never forced to 1B. Moreover, it couldn't be a normal play on the BR, because he had already acquired the base by passing it. Had he touched the base on the way by, he would have been safe.

This looked like relaxed action to me: the runner was not attempting to return when the base was tagged.

[MD Longhorn]

Originally Posted by Welpe

I don't think the U1 called him out for the appeal, I think he called him out because he had F3 tagging the base before the BR, ie a normal play.

Honestly, I doubt he thought about the reason for calling the out at all. Had it mattered (2 outs, R3 for example), I'm sure it would have popped into his (and PU's) mind slightly after the call that it was not a force, and was a timing play. Since it didn't matter, I'm sure he just called what he saw - and perhaps mused on it between innings.

[mbyron]

Originally Posted by mbcrowder

Had it mattered (2 outs, R3 for example), I'm sure it would have popped into his (and PU's) mind slightly after the call that it was not a force, and was a timing play.

Mike, I'm sure you know that (a) the BR attempting to acquire 1B is never technically a force play, and (b) this is not a time play, and no run could have scored had there been R3 and this the 3rd out (4.09(a)).

[MD Longhorn]

Originally Posted by mbyron

Mike, I'm sure you know that (a) the BR attempting to acquire 1B is never technically a force play, and (b) this is not a time play, and no run could have scored had there been R3 and this the 3rd out (4.09(a)).

A) Yes ... just using shorthand. B) good point. My bad.

[KJUmp]

Originally Posted by mbcrowder

Honestly, I doubt he thought about the reason for calling the out at all. Had it mattered (2 outs, R3 for example), I'm sure it would have popped into his (and PU's) mind slightly after the call that it was not a force, and was a timing play. Since it didn't matter, I'm sure he just called what he saw - and perhaps mused on it between innings.

PU-Danley
1B-Bucknor