Was this an appeal play?

[MD Longhorn]

I would say, then, that technically this WAS an appeal play, even though it likely looked like a force to everyone else. Was there another runner in the equation that made the difference relevant?

[johnnyg08]

Originally Posted by mbcrowder

I would say, then, that technically this WAS an appeal play, even though it likely looked like a force to everyone else. Was there another runner in the equation that made the difference relevant?

bases empty, zero out,

night game :-)

[Welpe]

No other runners, the bases were empty at the time.

[MD Longhorn]

Well ... it's an appeal play. But does it matter to anyone other than you, me, Johnny, and the wall?

[johnnyg08]

I expected to see a safe signal by U1 for passing the base, but no signal, then the out on the appeal...have read about the play many, many times, but haven't seen the appeal executed in that manner before.

[Welpe]

I don't think the U1 called him out for the appeal, I think he called him out because he had F3 tagging the base before the BR, ie a normal play.

[mbyron]

Originally Posted by Welpe

I don't think the U1 called him out for the appeal, I think he called him out because he had F3 tagging the base before the BR, ie a normal play.

It's a missed base appeal. The runner acquired the base before being tagged because he passed it. Since he missed the base, he was liable to be put out on appeal, which F3 accomplished by tagging the base.

[yawetag]

Originally Posted by mbyron

It's a missed base appeal. The runner acquired the base before being tagged because he passed it. Since he missed the base, he was liable to be put out on appeal, which F3 accomplished by tagging the base.

And, the appeal was obvious (i.e., F3's glove didn't land on the base accidentally while trying to make the play).

[Welpe]

Originally Posted by mbyron

It's a missed base appeal. The runner acquired the base before being tagged because he passed it. Since he missed the base, he was liable to be put out on appeal, which F3 accomplished by tagging the base.

I know that it is supposed to be a missed base appeal but I think the U1 simply judged it as a normal "force" play at first.

I was under the impression that with unrelaxed action, the runner had to be tagged. Or is that specific only to plays at the plate?

[MD Longhorn]

Originally Posted by Welpe

I don't think the U1 called him out for the appeal, I think he called him out because he had F3 tagging the base before the BR, ie a normal play.

Honestly, I doubt he thought about the reason for calling the out at all. Had it mattered (2 outs, R3 for example), I'm sure it would have popped into his (and PU's) mind slightly after the call that it was not a force, and was a timing play. Since it didn't matter, I'm sure he just called what he saw - and perhaps mused on it between innings.

[mbyron]

Originally Posted by mbcrowder

Had it mattered (2 outs, R3 for example), I'm sure it would have popped into his (and PU's) mind slightly after the call that it was not a force, and was a timing play.

Mike, I'm sure you know that (a) the BR attempting to acquire 1B is never technically a force play, and (b) this is not a time play, and no run could have scored had there been R3 and this the 3rd out (4.09(a)).

[KJUmp]

Originally Posted by mbcrowder

Honestly, I doubt he thought about the reason for calling the out at all. Had it mattered (2 outs, R3 for example), I'm sure it would have popped into his (and PU's) mind slightly after the call that it was not a force, and was a timing play. Since it didn't matter, I'm sure he just called what he saw - and perhaps mused on it between innings.

PU-Danley
1B-Bucknor