Is that fair?

[yawetag]

Originally Posted by UmpTTS43

C'mon Dash, now you're just makin' sh*t up. There is NO rule that says that. That is not even an official interp. Not a rule in OBR, NCAA, or FED.

Or is this another case where my chain is being yanked?

FED 7-2-1f: A strike is charged to the batter when: a batted ball contacts the batter in the batter's box (foul ball).

[mbyron]

Originally Posted by yawetag

FED 7-2-1f: A strike is charged to the batter when: a batted ball contacts the batter in the batter's box (foul ball).

Right: the FED rule expresses explicitly and is based on the (unwritten) OBR interp.

[Rich Ives]

Originally Posted by dash_riprock

That doesn't make any sense. 6.03 defines the batter's initial position in the box (both feet within the lines). The rule is more lenient when he contacts the ball with the bat (no foot can be on the ground completely out of the box). This means the batter can hit the ball while legally in the box, be hit by the ball and be called out for being hit by a fair ball while out of the box.

I like my version better.

I don't see a problem. The new rule says if the batter is in a LEGAL position, NOT "initial" position, when hit it's foul.

I think he's is legally in the box UNTIL one foor touches the ground completely outsde the batter's box - because he can legally hit the ball up to that point.

[dash_riprock]

Originally Posted by Rich Ives

I don't see a problem. The new rule says if the batter is in a LEGAL position, NOT "initial" position, when hit it's foul.

I think he's is legally in the box UNTIL one foor touches the ground completely outsde the batter's box - because he can legally hit the ball up to that point.

The rule you posted referenced 6.03 for the batter's "legal position" in the box.

[Rich Ives]

Originally Posted by dash_riprock

The rule you posted referenced 6.03 for the batter's "legal position" in the box.

And when does it cease being legal??

The only "guidance" we have is that when he hits the ball with one or both feen on the ground entirely out of the box it's illegally hit.

So up until then, he must be legally in the box.

[dash_riprock]

Originally Posted by Rich Ives

And when does it cease being legal??

According to 6.03, when both feet are not within the lines of the box.

The only "guidance" we have is that when he hits the ball with one or both feet on the ground entirely out of the box it's illegally hit.

That "guidance" is for when the batter hits the ball, not when the batted ball hits him. The new rule defines legal position when he is hit with the ball (6.03). As written, according to the new rule, if the batter is hit by a batted ball and both feet are not within the lines of the box, he is out.

I am sure that is not what they meant, but that is what they wrote.

[Rich Ives]

Originally Posted by dash_riprock

According to 6.03, when both feet are not within the lines of the box.

So I can have one foot out of the box and be legal?

[mbyron]

Originally Posted by dash_riprock

According to 6.03, when both feet are not within the lines of the box.

As Rich's question suggests, this expression is ambiguous between:
a. it's not the case that both feet are within the lines, i.e., one or both feet are outside the box, or
b. both feet are outside the box.

I'm confident that you mean (a).

[dash_riprock]

Originally Posted by mbyron

As Rich's question suggests, this expression is ambiguous between:
a. it's not the case that both feet are within the lines, i.e., one or both feet are outside the box, or
b. both feet are outside the box.

I'm confident that you mean (a).

Thank you. I had hoped Rich would share your confidence.