Two simple questions.

[Umpmazza]

Originally Posted by dash_riprock

Can someone tell my why:

1. From the set, F1 must come to a complete stop with no runners.

.

Since when does F1 has to come set with no runners on? Is this only a fed rule, cause NCAA and OBR F1 doesn't have to.

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by Umpmazza

Since when does F1 has to come set with no runners on? Is this only a fed rule, cause NCAA and OBR F1 doesn't have to.

Yes, it's a FED rule.

And, it's only an interp (relatively recent) that allows it in NCAA and OBR.

[Rich Ives]

Originally Posted by bob jenkins

Yes, it's a FED rule.

And, it's only an interp (relatively recent) that allows it in NCAA and OBR.

And it's not a mystery interp, it's right there in both rule books.

OBR: Rule 8.01(b) Comment: With no runners on base, the pitcher is not required to come to a complete stop when using the Set Position.

NCAA 9-b-2: A.R.—With the bases unoccupied, the pitcher does not need to come to a complete and discernable stop.