Force play or time play?

[SAump]

Maybe J/R denies subsequent appeals in those two examples because R1 made it back to the base and therefore corrected his error before the appeal - it's not clear.

Baseball may no longer allow the fielder to overstep a base to obtain an out in the classic sense of the ole neighborhood play, but it still allows a runner to obtain a base by overstepping it. The issue here is whether or not a base has actually been obtained when a runner passes by a base left untouched. Difficulties are compounded by the number of outs, advantageous fourth outs which may occur and different league interpretations.

A classic example occurs when R1 overslides 2B and a run scores before a tag occurs {See PBUC/MLB case plays}. One league allows a valid defensive appeal and another one doesn't. An alert fielder may be expected to receive the ball and then give chase after a baserunning infraction. Another example occurs when R3 overruns HP and the catcher makes a verbal appeal before throwing the ball in an attempt to retire a runner at another base. However, after a fly ball is caught, a retouch appeal allows the defensive to either a touch of base or tag of runner and will not require a tag of runner w/in proximity of the base. It isn't a force play, but touching the base is recognized as a valid appeal play.