Little League D-2

[llcoach]

I have a couple questions from a game today.

1- Bases loaded 2 outs, batter hits the ball toward 1st baseman who is playing inside the base line by 6-8 feet. He attempts to get the ball but it gets past him and hits the runner progressing from 1st to second. Is the runner out?

2 - in our leaugue D-2 ball, there is no stealing but the pitcher may attempt to pickoff a runner from the stretch position. Now, runners on 1st and third, a foul ball is hit, the runner on third is still out on his lead off from the foul, the ball is thrown back to the pitcher who is not on the mound who then throws to the third baseman who picks the ball up off the ground and runs over to tag the third base runner out. Is the ball live before the pitcher returns to the mound?

Interested in others opinions,
Thanks!

[waltjp]

If the first situation it would depend on where the ball was hit and where the second baseman was playing. If the second baseman had a chance to make a play the runner would be called out.

In the second situation, no, the ball is not live until the umpire makes it live. This should not happen until all runners have returned to their base.

[briancurtin]

Originally Posted by llcoach

I have a couple questions from a game today.

1- Bases loaded 2 outs, batter hits the ball toward 1st baseman who is playing inside the base line by 6-8 feet. He attempts to get the ball but it gets past him and hits the runner progressing from 1st to second. Is the runner out?

2 - in our leaugue D-2 ball, there is no stealing but the pitcher may attempt to pickoff a runner from the stretch position. Now, runners on 1st and third, a foul ball is hit, the runner on third is still out on his lead off from the foul, the ball is thrown back to the pitcher who is not on the mound who then throws to the third baseman who picks the ball up off the ground and runs over to tag the third base runner out. Is the ball live before the pitcher returns to the mound?

Interested in others opinions,
Thanks!

1. i dont have the runner being out. the ball passed the first baseman, and the ball would be live if hitting the runner. now if F3 is playing back and the ball hits the runner before passing a fielder, then you have an out.

2. the ball is live when the umpire points/calls the ball in play. i do not have an out here, as i wouldnt have put the ball in play at this point. the runner stays and we move on.

[TussAgee11]

ditto and ditto...

[BigUmp56]

Coach:

Walt probably gave you the more concise answer. If in the umpires judgment the second baseman had a chance to make a play on the ball then the runner is called out for interference, even if the ball had passed immediately back of the first baseman.

This is from the J/R.


It is interference by a runner (Batter-Runner included) if:


2. A batted ball touches him after passing a fringe infielder and another infielder had a play opportunity.

R2, one out, A grounder to the third baseman's left. He dives, but cannot touch the ball, and the ball hits the runner a few feet in front of the shortstop, who is expecting to field it: interference.

However, it is not interference if a batted ball touches him (unintentionally) after passing a fringe infielder and no other infielder had a play opportunity.

R3 and R1, first baseman is playing "in" (several feet in front of R1, who is leading off). The batter hits a hard grounder to the first baseman's right. He cannot touch it and it strikes R1. The second baseman had no chance of fielding the ball: no interference The ball is live.


Here is the OBR rule and subsequent Evans professional interpretation.


7.09(m) It is interference by a batter or a runner when a fair ball touches him on fair territory before touching a fielder. If a fair ball goes through or by an infielder, and touches a runner immediately back of him, or touches the runner after having been deflected by a fielder, the umpire shall not declare the runner out for being touched by a batted ball. In making such decision the umpire must be convinced that the ball passed through, or by, the fielder, and that no other infielder had the chance to make a play on the ball. If, in the judgment of the umpire, the runner deliberately and intentionally kicks such a batted ball on which the infielder has missed a play, then the runner shall be called out for interference.


Professional Interpretation: Ordinarily, when a runner is struck with a fair ball, he is legitimately out. There are situations, however, in which he is not out:

(1) The fair ball touches him after going between the legs of an infielder, unless he allows the ball to strike him intentionally;

(2) The fair ball touches him after passing immediately by an infielder, unless he allows the ball to touch him intentionally. “Immediately by” is considered as being within one arm's reach. If the fielder should have fielded the ball with ordinary effort but failed, the runner is not declared out.

(3) The ball touches him after being deflected, unless he intentionally interferes. An American League directive orders that the runner shall not be called out even if another infielder had a chance to make a play (unless his actions are designed to interfere with the deflected ball.)



Tim.

[mbyron]

And, as long as we're at it, coach, for future reference: the hands are NOT part of the bat.

[TussAgee11]

And you CAN have a part of your foot on the plate when you hit the ball.

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by llcoach

I have a couple questions from a game today.

1- Bases loaded 2 outs, batter hits the ball toward 1st baseman who is playing inside the base line by 6-8 feet. He attempts to get the ball but it gets past him and hits the runner progressing from 1st to second. Is the runner out?

How close was the ball to the first baseman when it went past? Was the first baseman moving or did it go through his legs?