Runner Missing 1st base on a force play

[UmpJordan]

Originally posted by bob jenkins

There's nothing specific in the rules. In fact, a literal reading would make the "other senior umpires" correct because first base was tagged by the fielder before BR "touched" the base.

But in "all" (I hesitate to use that word, because someone will point out an exception), when the book refers to a runner "touching" a base, it means "touching or passing". Since BR passed first, he can't be put out by "normal" play. It must be appealed.

Here's a play from J/R: A runner is
advancing to first or home and runs by the base, missing it, and continues running for several steps, ignoring the fact that he missed the base. The fielder, now in possession of the ball, shows the ball to the umpire and
steps on the base, claiming the runner missed it: action is relaxed, so this is an appeal, and the runner is out.

The play I speak of is different beacuse there is a play being made on the runner at the time he misses the base. In your play because it is not a force play the runner must be tagged and if he is tagged off the base then he is clearly out. The question I ask is if the runner is required to actually touch the base to occupy it and be called safe in a force play situation.