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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Mon May 02, 2011, 02:16pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by robbie View Post
The last completed at bat was still by B3. It just happened to be filled by an improper person in that spot.
B3 goes to second.
No, B3 is out because she did NOT complete her at bat.

Quote:
If you take the "last person with a completed at bat" as you do above,
No... I don't. Alex does - my example was an attempt to show why that could be incorrect...
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Old Mon May 02, 2011, 02:31pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by mbcrowder View Post
No, B3 is out because she did NOT complete her at bat.

No... I don't. Alex does No I don't. I did make me look like a fool, Sander- my example was an attempt to show why that could be incorrect...
Mike, there is a slight difference in "not completing your at bat" and having a complete turn at bat: B3 was out for NOT BATTING. That gave her a complete turn at bat...
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Old Mon May 02, 2011, 03:10pm
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Think about the logic behind the rule.
What we are trying to avoid is to have a runner on base when it is their turn to bat.
By using the batter preceding the one who is due up, the odds are reduced to the minimum.
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