'Slapper' Batter/Runner interference question

[okla21fan]

Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA

It all comes down to "what did the BR do to interfere"?

Please don't say "running in fair territory" as there is no rule dictating where a runner can or cannot run at any time.

I would dis agree with that statement, simply based on the 'running lane' alone and running between home and first in this case. I understand this is not the case when running between other bases (where the runner 'creates' their own baseline unless a tag play is being made on them)

The answer is the second word of the definition of "Interference" in Rule 1. The BR must actually do something to interfere. A player's mere presence is not an "act" of interference.

Since the ASA rule book has been so 'vanilla-ized' over the past few years, and one key element of interference has been removed (in this case intent). I am not sure about your interpretation here either.

my question is , if a batter/runner is 'OUT' when struck by a thrown ball OUTSIDE the running lane, why would this play not be applicable to this rule? If the runner had reached the running lane and is struck with a thrown ball over fair territory, we have an out.

This maybe more of a rule book clarification, but reading the book and interpreting the black and white as the book reads today. It appears that an out should be called. (whether I agree with that or not)