Does the run score or is it a timming play?

[Tru_in_Blu]

I know NFHS is clear that a base on balls is an awarded base. In ASA, they are careful to avoid the use of "award" in defining a base on balls.

However, 8-1-C states:
When four balls have been called by the umpire. The batter-runner is awarded first base.

Not to doubt what KR said, but this wording leaves the ASA interpretation somewhat in doubt. If the BR is granted an awarded base, then all other runners are entitled to advance without liability to be put out. Essentially, this is the logic applied by the NFHS ruling.

ASA 8.5.A for reference to base runners being able to advance without liability.

ASA 8-2-M is another example of inconsistent wording.
1. A batted ball hitting or bounding over the white portion is fair.
2. A batted ball hitting or bounding over the colored portion is foul.

A line drive hits smack in the middle of 1B, meaning half on the white side and half on the colored side. 99 and 44/100s of the umpire community call this ball fair. But by rule, what? It can ONLY be fair or foul, not both. But the wording of the above does not allow for that. I know what they meant. I suspect this will be a question on a future ASA umpire's exam with no right answer.