Does the run score or is it a timming play?

[IRISHMAFIA]

Originally Posted by Tru_in_Blu

B. Bounds over or past first or third base, which is in fair territory, regardless of where the ball hits after going over the base.

Is the colored portion of the double-base NOT first base?

Not in fair territory as required in your reference above.

We both know that if the ball hits 1B in the middle, it's a fair ball. My point is that a ball can hit the orange part of the base [and the white at the same time] and will be ruled fair. The rule says if it hits the colored part of the base, it's a foul ball. This is false.

Ted

Read both definitions. A ball hitting the white meets the qualification of a fair ball, yet the definition of foul does not include or refer to the double base at all.

8.2.M.1&2 are both true statements. Yet for an umpire to make determinations and apply rules, s/he must consider the entire book, not just a specific word, line, sentence or paragraph alone.

A ball which does hit or bound over the orange portion only is a foul ball since that portion of the base is in foul territory (2.3.H) and at no time did the batted ball meet the qualification of a fair ball as set forth in Rule 1.

Lacking any qualifying statement in the definition of a foul ball involving the double base, a ball which hits ANY portion of the white must be a fair ball.