Counting The Run

[Insane Blue]

Originally Posted by chapmaja

What would confuse this even more is if Daniels had passed first base (but missed the base and it was properly appealed.

Run would still count as the runner is considered to have reached first once they passed the base and the appeal would not be a force out

[RKBUmp]

Originally Posted by Insane Blue

Run would still count as the runner is considered to have reached first once they passed the base and the appeal would not be a force out

That is incorrect. The batter/runner is assumed to have touched the base until properly appealed. If the defense appeals the miss of first prior to the batter/runner returning to the base then they never reached first safely.

[Tru_in_Blu]

Interesting scenario. Usually when the BR misses 1B, the appeal has to be made before the runner gets back to the base. That's the typical live ball appeal.

In this string, we have an INT call which results in an immediate dead ball. The BR is probably not going to stop running to 1B. She may be passing the base after the INT has been called or before. Would it matter?

When there's a dead ball, doesn't a runner have the opportunity to correct a base running mistake? I.E. could she simply return to 1B without the possibility of an appeal?

[Insane Blue]

Originally Posted by RKBUmp

That is incorrect. The batter/runner is assumed to have touched the base until properly appealed. If the defense appeals the miss of first prior to the batter/runner returning to the base then they never reached first safely.

Before the Appeal can be made the Runner has to be given the chance to correct a base running mistake before the appeal is allowed

[RKBUmp]

Originally Posted by Insane Blue

Before the Appeal can be made the Runner has to be given the chance to correct a base running mistake before the appeal is allowed

That is not what you stated in your initial comment. You said the runner is considered to have touched the base and the run would score.

I was not addressing nor did you address that it was a dead ball situation. The fact of the matter is and I did state that if a proper appeal was made then the batter/runner never did reach first base.

[Insane Blue]

Originally Posted by RKBUmp

That is not what you stated in your initial comment. You said the runner is considered to have touched the base and the run would score.

I was not addressing nor did you address that it was a dead ball situation. The fact of the matter is and I did state that if a proper appeal was made then the batter/runner never did reach first base.

I will be more thorough in my wording in the future

[chapmaja]

Originally Posted by Insane Blue

Before the Appeal can be made the Runner has to be given the chance to correct a base running mistake before the appeal is allowed

So here is a situation. Same instance, but the interference by the retired runner happens as F6 (I think that was the defensive player) is throwing the ball. The BR misses first base, and seeing the ball go over the F3's head, goes straight to second base,, having missed first. (Even though the umpire is yelling dead ball). She stops at second. The defense then appeals the missed base.

She has completed her base running by not attempting to go back and touch first. The missed base is then properly appealed.

Run does not count.

[Insane Blue]

Originally Posted by chapmaja

So here is a situation. Same instance, but the interference by the retired runner happens as F6 (I think that was the defensive player) is throwing the ball. The BR misses first base, and seeing the ball go over the F3's head, goes straight to second base,, having missed first. (Even though the umpire is yelling dead ball). She stops at second. The defense then appeals the missed base.

She has completed her base running by not attempting to go back and touch first. The missed base is then properly appealed.

Run does not count.

Correct but runner still could have gone back and touched first in this scenario but chose not to as many in this scenario do.