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FWIW, I think your scenario has some apparent contradictions that make it difficult to respond definitively.
1) You state there IS interference; more than a few responding question how that even could be, when the scenario doesn't suggest a "play".
Perhaps you could expand on the actual interference you are considering.
2) You state BR had passed first, but then want to phrase an "award" of first.
Once BR passes first before an interference, that is an attained base; if a dead ball occurs BEFORE BR reaches first, then BR is awarded first (if not out by another rule, such as interference).
If the interference occurs as per your OP, I see no questions. R1 has already scored, BR has already passed first. R2 is tagged out for out #2; BR is the runner closest to home that is out #3. BR already passed first, so out #3 occurs with BR having reached first safely. Run scores.
If the interference occurs BEFORE BR reaches first, the run does not score.
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Steve
ASA/ISF/NCAA/NFHS/PGF
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