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Old Mon May 04, 2020, 09:46am
Altor Altor is offline
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Join Date: Oct 2007
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Since this thread seemed to have died without really answering the OP's questions, perhaps I'll take a stab at them. I'm standing by my conclusion above on the original situation until somebody tells me I'm incorrect: If there's no play on BR, it's not interference. If there is a play available, BR is out. In both cases, run scores.

Quote:
Originally Posted by CecilOne View Post
Questions:
1) Does the BR being out as “closest to home” occur simultaneously with the INT?
Why wouldn't it be? Does the BR being out occur simultaneously with the legal touching of first base by a fielder in possession of the ball? I honestly don't know how else one would read the phase "A runner is out when ..."

Quote:
2) If so, since with a dead ball nothing happens, does that alter the run counting if INT occurs before the BR reaches 1st?
If the INT occurred before BR reached first, then the BR didn't not reach first and the run would not count if that was the third out. (NFHS 9-1-1-a)

Quote:
3) Does a BR being awarded 1st on the INT change the ruling?
I tried to understand this, but I'm guessing you've changed the situation in your head a bit. Consider this: Same situation as OP, but 2 outs. Batter hits ball toward F6. Speedy Able crosses the plate first. Then, Baker interferes with F6's attempt to make an initial play. Baker is out (9-6-10-a), BR is awarded first with a FC (9-6 Penalty for articles 10-14). I think your question is, does the run score here? My answer would be yes, regardless of whether BR touched first before the INT or not. 9-1-1-a does not apply as the BR was not the third out and none of the other exceptions in 9-1-1 apply either.
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