Counting The Run

[CecilOne]

Originally Posted by AtlUmpSteve

FWIW, I think your scenario has some apparent contradictions that make it difficult to respond definitively.

1) You state there IS interference; more than a few responding question how that even could be, when the scenario doesn't suggest a "play".

Perhaps you could expand on the actual interference you are considering.

2) You state BR had passed first, but then want to phrase an "award" of first.

I tried to clarify that this is a hypothetical to examine the rules minutely; even if not likely. The interference would be Baker interfering with the SS throw, even if not smart by SS and having to be late in Baker's move toward 3rd. With Daniel reaching 1st, there could be a play after the base. The OP says there was interference and it was called, so for the sake of detailing the rule, please assume so.

The 3 questions were then further drilling into the rules, apparently I was not clear about that. I should not have asked so much at once.

Originally Posted by AtlUmpSteve

Once BR passes first before an interference, that is an attained base; if a dead ball occurs BEFORE BR reaches first, then BR is awarded first (if not out by another rule, such as interference).

Which I said, or at least intended.

Originally Posted by AtlUmpSteve

If the interference occurs as per your OP, I see no questions. R1 has already scored, BR has already passed first. R2 is tagged out for out #2; BR is the runner closest to home that is out #3. BR already passed first, so out #3 occurs with BR having reached first safely. Run scores.

If the interference occurs BEFORE BR reaches first, the run does not score.

Agree, hope my OP opinion said that.