Most points scored by 1 player on 1 play - 10/15/other?

[bob jenkins]

[QUOTE=potato;950230]Are you guys saying if A1 goes up for a 2pt layup, gets fouled by B1 and continues for a shot and B2 comes in to block the shot but fouls A1, and the shot enters, A1 gets another 2 free throws 1 for each foul? never seen it before.[/quote[

By rule, yes. In practice, no.

What if A1 misses the shot, how many free throws would be awarded?

For multiple fouls:

1 FT for each foul if no try, a 2-point try (successful or not), or a successful 3-point try.

2 FTs for each foul if an unsuccessful 3-point try, or an I or F

[LSCoach]

Originally Posted by potato

By rule, yes. In practice, no.

I have a question. Why is this the case? I've seen a shooter on his way up get fouled, release the shot, then get leveled by an attempted shot blocker. I've never expected my shooter to get more than the accustomed 2 free throws.

In another thread Mutantducky brought up a scenario where he was adamant that he'd award free throws to a shooter that has released the shot and no longer in the act of shooting. By rule he was wrong but in his defense I've seen it multiple times. It's almost as if in practice, if the ball is still in the air, the shots are awarded even if the shooter is no longer in the act of shooting.

Why would the letter of the rule not be followed in this circumstance but the letter of the rule was important his circumstance?

To qualify this, I'm not saying I have an opinion one way or the other. I'm here because understanding the rules and there interpretations make me a better coach and has helped immensely in communicating with officials properly.

[Camron Rust]

Originally Posted by LSCoach

Why would the letter of the rule not be followed in this circumstance but the letter of the rule was important his circumstance?

It is a matter of penalizing more the rules allow for the infraction that has occurred (shooter having already landed) vs. applying judgement to not call a foul on the 2nd contact since it can be judged that two contacts typically don't create any more disadvantage than one. However, the multiple foul exists for that one time that is just might be needed.

[luvhoops]

Just like in society, there are some rules that are never enforced. The rule/case books are in need of editing.

Multiple fouls happen every game. It is NEVER called/adjudicated properly. There are countless times when a shooter near the basket gets fouled by more than one person. Only one foul is called. I've even seen plays where an official jokingly says aloud "pick one." Just like Rule 4-24 Article 7 happens EVERY game and is not enforced based on letter of rule. (I sense another topic coming)

Art 7. It is not legal to use the hand and/or forearm to prevent an opponent from attacking the ball during a dribble or when throwing for goal.

[Adam]

Your last example doesn't work, especially with this year's POE.

As for your other complaint, the reflexive answer to any multiple foul question will always include a warning to never call it. The next one to make this call will be the first. Ever. Anywhere.

[billyu2]

Originally Posted by luvhoops

Just like in society, there are some rules that are never enforced. The rule/case books are in need of editing.

Multiple fouls happen every game. It is NEVER called/adjudicated properly. There are countless times when a shooter near the basket gets fouled by more than one person. Only one foul is called. I've even seen plays where an official jokingly says aloud "pick one." Just like Rule 4-24 Article 7 happens EVERY game and is not enforced based on letter of rule. (I sense another topic coming)

Art 7. It is not legal to use the hand and/or forearm to prevent an opponent from attacking the ball during a dribble or when throwing for goal.

Opinion or do you have some statistical evidence to back this up? In 30 years of officiating 50-55 games/year only saw it once.

[luvhoops]

Originally Posted by billyu2

Opinion or do you have some statistical evidence to back this up? In 30 years of officiating 50-55 games/year only saw it once.

"Saw it" or "saw it called"?

I meant that multiple fouls occur all the time, however, I have never seen a multiple foul called/adjudicated.

[Adam]

Originally Posted by luvhoops

"Saw it" or "saw it called"?

I meant that multiple fouls occur all the time, however, I have never seen a multiple foul called/adjudicated.

Not only have I never seen it called, I've never heard of anyone who has seen it called. Haven't even heard a myth, or seen a fuzzy photo. At least with Sasquatch, we've got some photos.

[luvhoops]

Originally Posted by Adam

Not only have I never seen it called, I've never heard of anyone who has seen it called. Haven't even heard a myth, or seen a fuzzy photo. At least with Sasquatch, we've got some photos.

After all this, try reading NFHS Case 6.7.4, which involves multiple fouls by opponents at different times (False Multiple Foul). I have seen that occur dozens of time but again, never called and adjudicated as written. We probably have all seen it. A1 driving hard to the hoop, B1 reaches and fouls A1 on the arm, then A1 charges into B2.

[Adam]

Originally Posted by billyu2

Opinion or do you have some statistical evidence to back this up? In 30 years of officiating 50-55 games/year only saw it once.

You've only seen multiple players foul the same shooter once in 30 years?

Every game may be a bit extreme, but once in 30 years seems extreme, also.

[MD Longhorn]

Originally Posted by Adam

You've only seen multiple players foul the same shooter once in 30 years?

Every game may be a bit extreme, but once in 30 years seems extreme, also.

My guess on this... somewhere between once in 30 years and every single game. I bet I'm right.

[billyu2]

Originally Posted by Adam

You've only seen multiple players foul the same shooter once in 30 years?

Every game may be a bit extreme, but once in 30 years seems extreme, also.

Well, Adam, I'll admit I've seen several "maybees?" over the years that were quickly interpreted as one foul. But there was this one that jumped out right in front of me, clearly daring me to call a multiple foul - no question about it.

[potato]

[QUOTE=bob jenkins;950236]

Originally Posted by potato

Are you guys saying if A1 goes up for a 2pt layup, gets fouled by B1 and continues for a shot and B2 comes in to block the shot but fouls A1, and the shot enters, A1 gets another 2 free throws 1 for each foul? never seen it before.[/quote[

By rule, yes. In practice, no.



For multiple fouls:

1 FT for each foul if no try, a 2-point try (successful or not), or a successful 3-point try.

2 FTs for each foul if an unsuccessful 3-point try, or an I or F

The 1FT for each try i assume is the penalty for the foul after the initial foul?

[bob jenkins]

[QUOTE=potato;950388]

Originally Posted by bob jenkins

The 1FT for each try i assume is the penalty for the foul after the initial foul?

It's the penalty for each of the fouls that is a part of the multiple foul.