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Old Wed Oct 23, 2013, 11:01pm
APG APG is offline
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Originally Posted by Adam View Post
Maybe, but I'm not even considering a violation for "leaving the court" (note, the violation is not for going "out of bounds") unless the player is clearly and completely out of bounds with nothing touching in bounds.
That would be the realistic application of the rule. My point is the rule doesn't mandate both feet be OOB.
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Old Thu Oct 24, 2013, 09:28am
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Originally Posted by APG View Post
That would be the realistic application of the rule. My point is the rule doesn't mandate both feet be OOB.
No, but I don't think it makes it illegal to "be out of bounds." It's illegal to "leave the court for an unauthorized reason." I don't think a player has left the playing court unless no part of them is touching the playing court. IOW, I see a difference between being out of bounds and having left the playing court.

The problem is, while they very clearly define being out of bounds, "leaving the court" is not really defined. But every time it's described in a case play, it involves the player being completely out of bounds.
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Old Thu Oct 24, 2013, 09:40am
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Originally Posted by Adam View Post
The problem is, while they very clearly define being out of bounds, "leaving the court" is not really defined. But every time it's described in a case play, it involves the player being completely out of bounds.
True ... but "the court" is defined at the beginning of the book. To "leave" the area defined as "the court" in that section, I think it's safe to say you must be completely out of bounds - and this would be consistent with the case plays.
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