Would you call this palming violation?

[BktBallRef]

Under 30 seconds remaining in the game, Team A down 1.

A1 has the ball above the top of the key, isolated with B1. He's dribbling the ball back and forth from one hand to another. He dribbles from his right to his left, hesitates on his toes, left hand comes under the ball and he blows by B1.

You've previously called one palming violation during the game.

The poll is very simple. I don't need an analysis of my description. By rule, a palming violation occurred. Based on the facts given, would you whistle the violation?

[just another ref]

I thought it was a trick question.


YES Why would anyone not call it?

[refiator]

Originally Posted by BktBallRef

left hand comes under the ball and he blows by B1.

That's the key...He gained an advantage by being able to beat the defender.
Illegal.
How about the player who obviously "palms" the ball when no defender is present, and makes no move towards the basket? I've seen this called many times......IMO, this is not the intent of the rule...let it go.

[Raymond]

I've called a palming violation in the last minute of a closely contested game. Happened right if front of the offender's coach. He said nothing of it and my partner did not ask about it after the game.

If it's obvious and created a distinct advantage it's no different than calling a travel, IMO.

[BktBallRef]

Originally Posted by BadNewsRef

I've called a palming violation in the last minute of a closely contested game. Happened right if front of the offender's coach.

If it's obvious and created a distinct advantage it's no different than calling a travel, IMO.

That's what I thought too...when I made the call.

[BillyMac]

Is the implication that the rules change during the last thirty seconds of the game?

[Sco53]

Does it matter if I am at T, C, or L ?

[Indianaref]

Yes, if created a distinct advantage. Just curious, was the previous palming on the same player or the opponent? Also, did you get a lot of crap for the call?

[Adam]

Originally Posted by refiator

That's the key...He gained an advantage by being able to beat the defender.
Illegal.
How about the player who obviously "palms" the ball when no defender is present, and makes no move towards the basket? I've seen this called many times......IMO, this is not the intent of the rule...let it go.

My threshold goes up for calling this with no defender present, but I will and have called it. Just like three seconds, ten seconds, etc.

[BktBallRef]

Originally Posted by Indianaref

Yes, if created a distinct advantage. Just curious, was the previous palming on the same player or the opponent? Also, did you get a lot of crap for the call?

Don't recall the player in the first one. No crap though.

[BillyMac]

Originally Posted by Snaqwells

My threshold goes up for calling this with no defender present, but I will and have called it. Just like three seconds, ten seconds, etc.

Snaqwells: I can't quite figure out whether to agree with you, or disagree with you, on your last statement.

Are you saying your "threshold goes up for calling" ten seconds in the backcourt "with no defender present"?

[BillyMac]

Originally Posted by Indianaref

Was the previous palming on the same player or the opponent?

And this makes a difference, why?

[Indianaref]

Originally Posted by BillyMac

And this makes a difference, why?

Never said it did make a difference! If the same player had done it earlier, he should have known better, if it was a player on the other team, at least there is an appearance of fairness.

[just another ref]

I was wondering if the person who cast the single negative vote would care to comment and explain his position on this issue. I can only guess it would be something along the lines of "Don't let a call like this decide the game," of something equally profound.

In one of my first varsity games, I called a lane violation on the offense with 3 seconds left on a free throw that would have iced the game, then called a travel prior to the release on a potential game tying 3 pointer at the buzzer. It missed anyway.

[BillyMac]

Originally Posted by Indianaref

If it was a player on the other team, at least there is an appearance of fairness.

I have to disagree with you here "pardner". We never have to appear to be fair. We have to be fair. All the time.

Trading calls may help us to appear to be fair, but it doesn't necessarily make us fair. I never want to walk down that street, and I've been around the block many, many times.