Would you call this palming violation?

[just another ref]

Originally Posted by Indianaref

Billy, it was in Tony's original post about his crew having called an earlier palming violation, I was following up with curousity. Why do you think he posted that?

I think he posted it because he anticipated it as a possible question by someone who thinks that would matter, even though it doesn't.

Fairness, like most things, is in the eye of the beholder.

Has the violation been made earlier in the game on the same team?

"He calls that against us but not them."

Earlier in the game on the other team?

"Make up call."

Not at all?

"He saved that one for the end to screw us. It's the same move our guy used all night."

Often it doesn't seem fair. Many times one team gets all the calls. Usually because of talent level or style of play, but sometimes there is no obvious reason. I have said on more than one occasion, "This calling seemed one-sided to me, and I was one of the guys doing the calling."

[BillyMac]

Originally Posted by just another ref

It doesn't.

You're' damn right it doesn't.

There's no crying in baseball, and there are no makeup calls in basketball.

[JRutledge]

I will call any obvious violation no matter the time of the game and I see it.

Different story if I am unsure.

Peace