Utah/Denver Shot Clock Violation

[btaylor64]

Originally Posted by BadNewsRef

What about my question about a made basket in such situations?

" So, in the NBA, if I release a 40 ft jumpshot with 1.0 on the game clock and .5 on the shot clock and the ball passes through the hoop after both clocks expire are you going to put 0.5 back on the clock after the made basket? Same concept, right?"

I think Camron covered this in his post pretty much but since you are asking me....:

Plain and simple the team legally attempted a shot in your scenario, meaning the ball either contacted the rim or went in.

By the sounds of the college rule. If a player is just dribbling the clock out and there was supposed to be a 1 second differential and the officials don't hit their whistle or "recognize" it I guess I should say, and the game clocks runs to zeros then the game would be over????

To me and the background with which I've been taught, this doesn't make sense to me to allow a team more than their allotted time in a possession.

Is it possible that the NCAA uses this rule so that officials don't have to worry about knowing the time of possessions and also so they don't have to worry about resetting the clock to its appropriate time? It just makes it easier on the refs? I mean this in hopes of getting an honest answer, as I am not trying to be condescending as it sounds...