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Not to dive back into the question, but isn't the interp consistent with an A player standing out of bounds who is hit by a ball deflected out of bounds by B, but not touching OOB until it strikes A?
Even though B sent it out of bounds, it is still off of A. But if touches OOB BEFORE it hits A, then it is off of B. Why isn't this the same thing? The interp, to me, seems consistent, even if it is not really intuitive. The ball had FC status until it was touched by A, which made it have BC status, and hence we have a over and back, since A had team control the entire time. |
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To NEvada's comment, let me add that the OOB violation is for "causing the ball to go OOB" and there's a specific statement to the effect that "if a player standing OOB touches the ball, that player causes the ball to go OOB." There's no similar statement / comment on "causing the ball to go BC" |
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