Intentional Foul?

[JugglingReferee]

Originally Posted by Spence

Late game fouling situation. A1 reaches for B1 as he's going by and grabs his jersey from behind. I call intentional foul. Coach didn't have a big problem with it but said "he fouled him before that."

That got me to thinking. If I had called a foul for , say, a whack on the arm and then the defender subsequently grabbed and yanked the jersey from behind, is it still an intentional foul?

I generally wouldn't have an INT for that subsequent grab, but I would tell A1 "nothing after the fact". But if A1 went down to the ground, I would upgrade the first foul to an INT, and only report that one. I would not have a common foul and a dead ball INT. Edit: I guess clarification is needed for some: it is highly likely not going to be two fouls here.