Intentional Foul?

[Scratch85]

Originally Posted by JugglingReferee

I wouldn't have an INT for that subsequent grab, but I would tell A1 "nothing after the fact".

I would pass on the subsequent action also.

However, 4-19-1 Note addresses intentional and flagrant fouls after the ball has become dead. If you desire to call an intentional foul, by rule I believe it would be an intentional technical foul.

[Adam]

Originally Posted by Scratch85

I would pass on the subsequent action also.

However, 4-19-1 Note addresses intentional and flagrant fouls after the ball has become dead. If you desire to call an intentional foul, by rule I believe it would be an intentional technical foul.

Not if you didn't call the first one.

[Scratch85]

Originally Posted by Spence

Late game fouling situation. A1 reaches for B1 as he's going by and grabs his jersey from behind. I call intentional foul. Coach didn't have a big problem with it but said "he fouled him before that."

That got me to thinking. If I had called a foul for , say, a whack on the arm and then the defender subsequently grabbed and yanked the jersey from behind, is it still an intentional foul?

Originally Posted by Snaqwells

Not if you didn't call the first one.

Agreed. My response was to the part with the ? after it in the OP.

[JugglingReferee]

Originally Posted by Snaqwells

Not if you didn't call the first one.

Exactly.