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Tue Dec 21, 2004, 10:56pm
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I thought I read somewhere that if B1 fouls A2 before A1 releases the ball on a throw-in, it's an automatic intentional foul reguardless of the severity of the contact.
Did I make that up? p.s. Just saw a "blarge" call in the UCLA-Mich State game. Lead SOLD the block. Center calmly showed block, then conceded.
__________________
Luther 
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