intentional foul?

[lrpalmer3]

I thought I read somewhere that if B1 fouls A2 before A1 releases the ball on a throw-in, it's an automatic intentional foul reguardless of the severity of the contact.

Did I make that up?

p.s. Just saw a "blarge" call in the UCLA-Mich State game. Lead SOLD the block. Center calmly showed block, then conceded.

[Mark T. DeNucci, Sr.]

Originally posted by lrpalmer3
I thought I read somewhere that if B1 fouls A2 before A1 releases the ball on a throw-in, it's an automatic intentional foul reguardless of the severity of the contact.

Did I make that up?

p.s. Just saw a "blarge" call in the UCLA-Mich State game. Lead SOLD the block. Center calmly showed block, then conceded.

Irapalmer3:

Oh boy are you going back into ancient history. You are talking about the mid-1970's. Give me until tomorrow morning and I will go up in the attic and research the rule. I should know it because I had an intentional foul right out of the casebook the first year it was in effect.

MTD, Sr.

[JRutledge]

Originally posted by lrpalmer3
p.s. Just saw a "blarge" call in the UCLA-Mich State game. Lead SOLD the block. Center calmly showed block, then conceded.

Do you mean the Center had a PC foul then conceded?

Peace

[refnrev]

iraplamer3,
Federation rules 9:2 penalty 3 & 4 p. 56 2004 book
spells is out pretty clearly.

[Mark T. DeNucci, Sr.]

Originally posted by refnrev
iraplamer3,
Federation rules 9:2 penalty 3 & 4 p. 56 2004 book
spells is out pretty clearly.

refnev:

That is not the play about which irapalmer3 asking. Read my earlier post. The situation that he is describing was the second foul in a false double foul.

MTD, Sr.

[refnrev]

Oops. My bad. Right answer. Wrong question.

[lrpalmer3]

Case Book play 4.19.3 Situation C

"Team A leads by three points with four seconds remaining in the fourth quarter. Team A is to throw-in from a spot out of bounds on the end line. Players begin jockeying for positions just after the official has handed the ball to A1. B1, while trying to deny a pass from A1 to A2: (a) grabs A2's arm, or (b) pushes A2 from behind. RULING: In (a) and (b), it is an intentional personal foul designed to keep the clock from starting or to neutralize an opponent's obvious advantageout position."

Okay, so we know what we're supposed to call. Is this another one of those rulings that gets re-interpreted at game time?

[Mark T. DeNucci, Sr.]

Originally posted by lrpalmer3
Case Book play 4.19.3 Situation C

"Team A leads by three points with four seconds remaining in the fourth quarter. Team A is to throw-in from a spot out of bounds on the end line. Players begin jockeying for positions just after the official has handed the ball to A1. B1, while trying to deny a pass from A1 to A2: (a) grabs A2's arm, or (b) pushes A2 from behind. RULING: In (a) and (b), it is an intentional personal foul designed to keep the clock from starting or to neutralize an opponent's obvious advantageout position."

Okay, so we know what we're supposed to call. Is this another one of those rulings that gets re-interpreted at game time?

irapalmer3:

Those are examples of intentional personal fouls regardless of the time remaining. But in the midd-70's there was a rule that if what would normally be a common foul is committed under a certain defined situation, the personal foul was to be considered an intentional personal foul. Just give me a chance to get up into the attic this morning and I will try to have an answer for you this afternoon.

MTD, Sr.

[ChuckElias]

Originally posted by lrpalmer3
I thought I read somewhere that if B1 fouls A2 before A1 releases the ball on a throw-in, it's an automatic intentional foul reguardless of the severity of the contact.

Did I make that up?

You may be thinking of the NBA's Away-from-the-play foul. In the last two minutes of the 4th quarter or any OT period, if any offensive player is fouled while the ball is still in the hands of the inbounder, it's an away-from-the-play foul. 2 FTs (by any player on the floor) and the ball back at the original spot.

[TimTaylor]

Originally posted by lrpalmer3
Team A is to throw-in from a spot out of bounds on the end line. Players begin jockeying for positions just after the official has handed the ball to A1. B1, while trying to deny a pass from A1 to A2: (a) grabs A2's arm, or (b) pushes A2 from behind. RULING: In (a) and (b), it is an intentional personal foul designed to keep the clock from starting or to neutralize an opponent's obvious advantageout position."

Okay, so we know what we're supposed to call. Is this another one of those rulings that gets re-interpreted at game time? [/B]

Had a similar situation in a boys JV game last night, only the inbound point was near the division line after a time out and B1 pushed A2 well off his established position before I could put the ball at A1's disposal.

Whack - T on B1.....coach B went nuts of course. Had B1 waited until after I handed A1 the ball it definitely would have been an X.

[hbioteach]

I had a similar situation last year. Team A throwin following a time out. Prior to the ball being at the disposal of A1 for the throw-in. B1 fouls A2 (trying to guard the inbpunds play that hadn't started).

T on B1. Dead ball foul.

[Mark Dexter]

Originally posted by TimTaylor

Had a similar situation in a boys JV game last night, only the inbound point was near the division line after a time out and B1 pushed A2 well off his established position before I could put the ball at A1's disposal.

Whack - T on B1.....coach B went nuts of course. Had B1 waited until after I handed A1 the ball it definitely would have been an X.

Sounds like a good call - that sort of thing has no place in a basketball game. Normally, it's best to try to talk players out of contact before the ball even becomes live, but when you have a shove - penalize it.

[Mark T. DeNucci, Sr.]

Originally posted by lrpalmer3
I thought I read somewhere that if B1 fouls A2 before A1 releases the ball on a throw-in, it's an automatic intentional foul reguardless of the severity of the contact.

Did I make that up?

p.s. Just saw a "blarge" call in the UCLA-Mich State game. Lead SOLD the block. Center calmly showed block, then conceded.

By rule it is impossible to have a "blarge." Either the defender had a legal guarding position or he did not. A defender cannot have a legal guarding position and be guilty of a block.

MTD, Sr.

[TimTaylor]

Originally posted by Mark Dexter
Sounds like a good call - that sort of thing has no place in a basketball game. Normally, it's best to try to talk players out of contact before the ball even becomes live, but when you have a shove - penalize it.

Yeah, this came at less than 1 minute to play, team B up by 2. Unfortunately neither talking to the players or the 54 fouls we called had much effect. Both teams were being physical, and neither had the skill to play through the contact - didn't leave us a lot of choice but to call the obvious disadvantage......

[Forksref]

Originally posted by hbioteach
I had a similar situation last year. Team A throwin following a time out. Prior to the ball being at the disposal of A1 for the throw-in. B1 fouls A2 (trying to guard the inbpunds play that hadn't started).

T on B1. Dead ball foul.

Can we assume that IF the ball had been placed at the disposal of the thrower-in that we would have an intentional personal? (As in casebook play 4.19.3 situation C) The key is is the ball has been placed at the disposal. Also, IF the player out of bounds was fouled (not the ball being slapped), it would be an intentional personal foul.