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There's no such thing as a controlled tap. Either the player establishes control -- holding or dribbling the live ball inbounds -- or he doesn't. Ask yourself this: would you have granted a time-out to the player if he'd asked for it during his "controlled tap". If the answer is no, then NO VIOLATION.
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But you know the funny thing with this play is the inverse, for lack of a better term. If team A has the ball in the FC, basic play, and a pass is deflected by B into the BC, A can legally retrieve the ball. Make sure I'm right on that first.
By using the discussion above, B never had team control, yet we are allowing A to retain possession. Yet a tap on a throw-in doesn't have the same restrictions. Anyone else see the contradiction in this rule? Just my mid-morning ramblings (lack of sleep and no coffee yet)
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B taps it into the backcourt and then they are legally the only ones allowed to touch it. Major advantage. That's what the rules are for, to take away advantages like that and make the game FAIR. |
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Agreed -- but if it was a pass, then A1 had to be holding the ball, however briefly. |
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One of our most basic definitions is that a player is in control of the ball when s/he is holding or dribbling a live ball inbounds. Period. That's the only 2 ways to have player control. Batting or tapping the ball does NOT establish player control. Therefore, there is no such thing as a "controlled tap". |
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Actually 4-1-1 says "has tapped (past tense) the ball and has not returned to the floor." Either way, that play isn't quite the same. 4-12-1 says "holding or dribbling a live ball inbounds." So I guess it comes down to your definition of holding a ball. I'd call it a gray area. One could say that controlling the ball to tap it is "holding" it, even if just for a moment. The opposite could be argued as well.
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Remember - there's a huge difference between "holding" a keg and "tapping" a keg. ![]()
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