Backcourt or not?

[Spence]

Originally Posted by Spence

Gotcha. So there was no FC status until the ball was touched by B1 who was in the FC.?

Originally Posted by Snaqwells

Exactly.

Now, the rule says A has to be the first to touch the ball "after" it regains BC status. The case play seems to treat A1 retouching the ball as both giving it BC status and touching it "after." Most here disagree that he can do both simultaneously.

The Fed case ruling would be different if the ball bounced in the BC before A1 touches it. Many here think this is stupid.

So the following would also be a violation:

A1 is holding the ball with one foot touching BC/one foot in the frontcourt and is being closely guarded by B1 who has both feet on FC. B1 slaps the ball off of the leg of A1 and the ball goes to the BC where A1 is the first to touch it. Violation?