Backcourt or not?

[Spence]

Originally Posted by BadNewsRef

No. Ball never had FC status.

Bear with this rookie.

In the OP, we have an offensive player dribbling the ball at the center line but does not have the ball and both feet in the FC. However, the defender is in the FC and he touches the ball which, if I'm understanding correctly, gave the ball FC status. Correct? The ball then is last touched by the offensive player who is the first to touch it in the BC, thus, a violation.

If I am correct on my understanding, how is that different from the scenario I presented? The ball did not have FC status since a foot was still in the BC.

What am I not following?

[Spence]

Originally Posted by Spence

Bear with this rookie.

In the OP, we have an offensive player dribbling the ball at the center line but does not have the ball and both feet in the FC. However, the defender is in the FC and he touches the ball which, if I'm understanding correctly, gave the ball FC status. Correct? The ball then is last touched by the offensive player who is the first to touch it in the BC, thus, a violation.

If I am correct on my understanding, how is that different from the scenario I presented? The ball did not have FC status since a foot was still in the BC.

What am I not following?

Maybe I found my own answer. Is the difference that in the OP we are talking about a dribble which was touched by the defender in the FC while the ball was NOT touching the offensive player in the BC vs my scenario where the offensive player was holding the ball when it was hit by the defender?

[Camron Rust]

Originally Posted by Spence

Maybe I found my own answer. Is the difference that in the OP we are talking about a dribble which was touched by the defender in the FC while the ball was NOT touching the offensive player in the BC vs my scenario where the offensive player was holding the ball when it was hit by the defender?

It doesn't really matter. If A1 was constantly in the backcourt and team B touches the ball between the touches by A, you should never have a violation.



For points required for a violation:

1. Team control
2. Ball gains FC status
3. Team A last to touch the ball BEFORE the ball returns to the BC (gains BC status).
4. Team A first to touch the ball AFTER the ball returns to the BC (gains BC status).

For #2, it doesn't necessarily mean player control in the FC.
For #3, it doesn't matter WHERE team A touches the ball or if the ball still has BC status, just the order relative to gaining BC status.

[Raymond]

Originally Posted by Spence

Bear with this rookie.

In the OP, we have an offensive player dribbling the ball at the center line but does not have the ball and both feet in the FC. However, the defender is in the FC and he touches the ball which, if I'm understanding correctly, gave the ball FC status. Correct? The ball then is last touched by the offensive player who is the first to touch it in the BC, thus, a violation.

If I am correct on my understanding, how is that different from the scenario I presented? The ball did not have FC status since a foot was still in the BC.

What am I not following?

In the OP the poster added that the ball was batted into the FC by the defender (B1) before A1 retrieved it.

[Spence]

Am I correct that if during a throw in the ball is tipped by a defender and caught by an offensive player who jumped from the FC and landed in the BC we have a backcourt violation? I seem to remember reading that with the logic being that the throw in ended when touched by the defender.

[Zoochy]

Originally Posted by Spence

Am I correct that if during a throw in the ball is tipped by a defender and caught by an offensive player who jumped from the FC and landed in the BC we have a backcourt violation? I seem to remember reading that with the logic being that the throw in ended when touched by the defender.

That is correct. That play was listed on the NFHS and IAABO web sites as interps. I do believe that the described play is in the case book. I believe it is under 'Back Court Violation."

[Spence]

Originally Posted by Zoochy

That is correct. That play was listed on the NFHS and IAABO web sites as interps. I do believe that the described play is in the case book. I believe it is under 'Back Court Violation."

Thanks. One more follow-up then: Lets say it was not tipped by the defense. It was tipped by A2 in the FC and then recovered by A3 in the BC. If I'm reading the rules and definitions correctly there was no team or player control in the FC so I would have nothing. Correct?

[Raymond]

Originally Posted by Spence

Am I correct that if during a throw in the ball is tipped by a defender and caught by an offensive player who jumped from the FC and landed in the BC we have a backcourt violation? I seem to remember reading that with the logic being that the throw in ended when touched by the defender.

From last season's interps.

Here are the important words: The provision for making a normal landing only applies to the exceptions of a throw-in and a defensive player, and is only for the player making the initial touch on the ball. (9-9-1; 9-9-3)