Backcourt or not?

[Spence]

Originally Posted by slow whistle

One foot in FC, one foot in BC.

So how would he have gained FC status?

[Adam]

Originally Posted by Spence

So how would he have gained FC status?

He didn't. The ball did when it was slapped by B1.

[Spence]

Originally Posted by Snaqwells

He didn't. The ball did when it was slapped by B1.

Gotcha. So there was no FC status until the ball was touched by B1 who was in the FC.?

[Adam]

Originally Posted by Spence

Gotcha. So there was no FC status until the ball was touched by B1 who was in the FC.?

Exactly.

Now, the rule says A has to be the first to touch the ball "after" it regains BC status. The case play seems to treat A1 retouching the ball as both giving it BC status and touching it "after." Most here disagree that he can do both simultaneously.

The Fed case ruling would be different if the ball bounced in the BC before A1 touches it. Many here think this is stupid.

[Spence]

Originally Posted by Spence

Gotcha. So there was no FC status until the ball was touched by B1 who was in the FC.?

Originally Posted by Snaqwells

Exactly.

Now, the rule says A has to be the first to touch the ball "after" it regains BC status. The case play seems to treat A1 retouching the ball as both giving it BC status and touching it "after." Most here disagree that he can do both simultaneously.

The Fed case ruling would be different if the ball bounced in the BC before A1 touches it. Many here think this is stupid.

So the following would also be a violation:

A1 is holding the ball with one foot touching BC/one foot in the frontcourt and is being closely guarded by B1 who has both feet on FC. B1 slaps the ball off of the leg of A1 and the ball goes to the BC where A1 is the first to touch it. Violation?

[Raymond]

Originally Posted by Spence

So the following would also be a violation:

A1 is holding the ball with one foot touching BC/one foot in the frontcourt and is being closely guarded by B1 who has both feet on FC. B1 slaps the ball off of the leg of A1 and the ball goes to the BC where A1 is the first to touch it. Violation?

No. Ball never had FC status.

[Spence]

Originally Posted by BadNewsRef

No. Ball never had FC status.

Bear with this rookie.

In the OP, we have an offensive player dribbling the ball at the center line but does not have the ball and both feet in the FC. However, the defender is in the FC and he touches the ball which, if I'm understanding correctly, gave the ball FC status. Correct? The ball then is last touched by the offensive player who is the first to touch it in the BC, thus, a violation.

If I am correct on my understanding, how is that different from the scenario I presented? The ball did not have FC status since a foot was still in the BC.

What am I not following?