Long Time Lurker, First Time Poster

[NewNCref]

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee

Oh? Do you a rules citation that will back up the statement that there's no question about where to give the replacement throw-in? And how much time are you going to accurately take off the clock to allow for the time that elapsed between the throw-in ending and your whistle? Or do you just ignore that time?

The play simply isn't covered.Personally, I'm taking it back to the original throw-in spot. Why? Because you're giving the throwing team an unfair advantage imo. You're letting them move the ball up the court without using any time at all to do so. That's completely unfair to the defense imo.

If the guy is just letting it bounce in front of him, without touching it as to delay the start of the clock, and then grabs it with both hands, the clock would start at the same moment that player control was gained. I can then say that he gained possession of the ball at the time that should have been on the clock (though granted my knowledge of physics is lacking, I think I'm probably making some wrong assertion about simultaneous events).

I do agree with you, JR, that it does seem like an unfair advantage is being gained, but during every throw-in, the throwing team gets to move the ball up the court without using any time. It could be rolled to half court before it's touched, and you're already halfway to the basket without using any time. Considering it was an timer's error, and not some play designed for them to move the ball up the court without using any time, I'm okay with it in this regard.

The reason I would not do it is that it's too risky, and wouldn't be proper in all situations. What if there was a defender on him who then stole the ball, or if he doesn't immediately grab the ball, but tips it. It's all too risky, so I wouldn't try it. Just thinking out loud to get other's opinions.

[Mark Dexter]

Originally Posted by NewNCref

If the guy is just letting it bounce in front of him, without touching it as to delay the start of the clock, and then grabs it with both hands, the clock would start at the same moment that player control was gained. I can then say that he gained possession of the ball at the time that should have been on the clock (though granted my knowledge of physics is lacking, I think I'm probably making some wrong assertion about simultaneous events).

Yeah. Technically, in this case, there would be time between when the ball was touched and when the whistle was blown. FWIW, the NBA rules/clock guidelines state that AT LEAST 0.3 must come off the clock when the ball is inbounded and followed by a quick whistle.