Technical or Violation if

[Jurassic Referee]

Originally Posted by Scrapper1

Grrrrrr. Make me open the casebook. . . Grumble, grumble.

It's there just to dispel the myth about being the "first to touch". Being the first to touch the ball is irrelevant to whether a violation has been committed or not, as I already said. In all three situations of that case play, there was no violation for touching the ball after returning inbounds. So the touching is irrelevant to whether a violation was committed or not. The violation in (c) is for dribbling a second time; not for coming back inbounds and recovering the ball.

That's cool. But is that what the original poster was referring to, Carnac? That case play sureashell fits what he posted imo(almost word-for-word). If so, that would make the correct answer to the OP be "neither-legal play".

[Scrapper1]

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee

That's cool. But is that what the original poster was referring to, Carnac?

Well, I didn't think so. Because he asked if it was a violation or T. I can't imagine anyone might think that the penalty for 7.1.1D(a) would be a T. Seemed more reasonable that he was asking about leaving the court to go around a screen.

But in either case, touching the ball first is still irrelevant to the question.

[Jurassic Referee]

Originally Posted by Scrapper1

But in either case, touching the ball first is still irrelevant to the question.

Not if the answer is "legal play" and the OP didn't know that.

[Scrapper1]

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee

Not if the answer is "legal play" and the OP didn't know that.

Does touching the ball have anything to do with whether the play is legal or illegal?

[Raymond]

Originally Posted by Scrapper1

But in either case, touching the ball first is still irrelevant to the question.

Would it be relevant if rule 9-3 Note was the scenario in question?